Tuesday, June 30, 2020

The Parable of the Rich Man and Lazarus

Among the passages of Scripture to which Christians commonly appeal in support of the traditional Christian doctrine of “hell” is Luke 16:19-31. In the English Standard Version, this passage reads as follows:

“There was a rich man who was clothed in purple and fine linen and who feasted sumptuously every day. And at his gate was laid a poor man named Lazarus, covered with sores, who desired to be fed with what fell from the rich man's table. Moreover, even the dogs came and licked his sores. The poor man died and was carried by the angels to Abraham's side. The rich man also died and was buried, and in Hades, being in torment, he lifted up his eyes and saw Abraham far off and Lazarus at his side. And he called out, ‘Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus to dip the end of his finger in water and cool my tongue, for I am in anguish in this flame.’ But Abraham said, ‘Child, remember that you in your lifetime received your good things, and Lazarus in like manner bad things; but now he is comforted here, and you are in anguish. And besides all this, between us and you a great chasm has been fixed, in order that those who would pass from here to you may not be able, and none may cross from there to us.’ And he said, ‘Then I beg you, father, to send him to my father's house— for I have five brothers—so that he may warn them, lest they also come into this place of torment.’ But Abraham said, ‘They have Moses and the Prophets; let them hear them.’ And he said, ‘No, father Abraham, but if someone goes to them from the dead, they will repent.’ He said to him, ‘If they do not hear Moses and the Prophets, neither will they be convinced if someone should rise from the dead.’”

Most Christians assume that, in these verses, Christ was narrating a true story based on actual historical events. According to this commonly-held view, this passage reveals what actually happened to two people after they died. In contrast with this understanding, I believe that both the context and the content of the story indicate that Jesus intended this story to be understood as a parable.

That this story is, in fact, a parable has been noted by a significant number of mainstream Christian scholars both past and present. For example, Robert W. Yarbrough (an advocate of the traditional doctrine of hell) concedes in his essay “Jesus on Hell” that it is “widely accepted that this story is parabolic and not intended to furnish a detailed geography of hell” (Hell Under Fire, pg. 74). Yarbrough goes on to refer to the story as a “parable” in the same paragraph. I would actually go even further than Yarbrough (who, in his essay, clearly wants the parable of the rich man and Lazarus to provide at least some support for the Christian doctrine of hell). Not only is the story of the rich man and Lazarus not “intended to furnish a detailed geography of hell,” but – as I’ll be arguing in this article – the fact that the story is a parable means that it provides no support whatsoever for the existence of the “hell” in which most Christians believe.

What is a parable? The word “parable” is a transliteration of the Greek term para bole’ (the literal elements being “BESIDE-CAST”), and means, “a statement parallel to (or “cast beside”) its real spiritual significance; a figure of likeness in action.” It’s essentially a statement or story that, while based on familiar things, is meant to convey a deeper, spiritual truth. Insofar as a statement or story is a parable, it is neither literal nor historical in nature. As soon as one attempts to interpret a parable literally, one misses the point of the parable, and misunderstands its intended purpose and meaning.

What is the context of the parable of the rich man and Lazarus? This parable is closely connected to the preceding parables Jesus told (the first of which begins in Luke 15:4). In Luke 15:1-3 we’re provided with the reason Christ told these parables: “Now the tax collectors and sinners were all drawing near to hear him. And the Pharisees and the scribes grumbled, saying, ‘This man receives sinners and eats with them!’ So he told them this parable, saying…” Jesus then proceeded to give them a series of parables, each of which should be understood as pertaining to the original situation described in Luke 15:1-2.

Notice the transitional word that Jesus used before the parable of the lost coin, and which connects it to the previous parable of the lost sheep (v. 8). Notice also the first verse of chapter 16 (“And he said also unto his disciples...”). The word “also” refers back to all that went before in this series of parables. Notice also the introduction of the third and fourth parables (cf. Luke 12:16):

“A certain man...” (15:11)

“A certain man, who was rich...” (16:1)

Just a few verses later – after an interruption by the Pharisees and a statement regarding the Mosaic Law and divorce (which, according to A.E. Knoch, may suggest that the nation of Israel was soon going to be “divorced” from God) – Jesus concluded the series of parables with the story of the rich man and Lazarus (which served as the final rebuke of the self-righteous, money-loving Pharisees). Notice the strikingly similar way that Christ began this final parable in the series:

“Now a certain man was rich…” (16:19)

Any objection that this story is not specifically called a parable is invalid, since only eleven of the twenty-six parables recorded in Luke’s Gospel Account are actually named parables by Luke. But doesn’t Christ’s use of a person’s name (“Lazarus”) indicate that the story actually happened? No. There is no rule that says a parable can or can’t contain the mention of a named person. The use of a name is simply not a criterion by which we can determine whether or not a story is a parable (the parable found in Ezekiel 23 is another example in which the characters of a parable are given names). Seeing that “Lazarus” is the only character who is named, it is likely that this detail is meant to convey something that is important to the central message of the parable. I believe the way in which Christ concluded the parable may provide us with a clue as to why the poor man was given the name “Lazarus.” Here, again, are verses 27-31:

And he said, ‘Then I beg you, father, to send him to my father's house— for I have five brothers—so that he may warn them, lest they also come into this place of torment.’ But Abraham said, ‘They have Moses and the Prophets; let them hear them.’ And he said, ‘No, father Abraham, but if someone goes to them from the dead, they will repent.’ He said to him, ‘If they do not hear Moses and the Prophets, neither will they be convinced if someone should rise from the dead.’

Notice that the rich man did not believe that hearing “Moses and the Prophets” would result in the repentance of his brothers. If the rich man and his five brothers represent those of whom this parable was intended by Christ to be a rebuke (i.e., the Pharisees, who – in v. 14 – we’re told were “inherently fond of money”), then their failure to repent after hearing Moses and the Prophets is in accord with the following words of Christ that we find recorded in John 5:46-47 (which were spoken to a company of unbelieving Jews earlier in his ministry): “If you believed Moses, you would believe Me, for he writes concerning Me. Now if you are not believing his writings, how shall you be believing My declarations?”

Although the rich man in Jesus’ parable realizes that his brothers wouldn’t hear “Moses and the Prophets,” he thinks they would repent if someone went to them “from the dead.” However, Abraham’s response to the rich man’s suggestion reveals otherwise: ‘If they do not hear Moses and the Prophets, neither will they be convinced if someone should rise from the dead.’ And later in Jesus’ ministry – when a man named “Lazarus” is actually raised from the dead – Abraham’s concluding statement in the parable is proven correct. Rather than being led to repentance as a result of Lazarus’ resurrection, the majority of unbelieving Jews (which included the Pharisees to whom Christ told the parables recorded in Luke 15-16) remained in unbelief concerning the truth of Jesus’ Messianic identity, and were strengthened in their resolve to have Jesus put to death (John 11:45-53).

Sheol/Hades

In verse 23 we’re told that the rich man was in “Hades” after he died. The term “Hades” is a transliteration of the Greek word hádēs. Although this term is translated “hell” in a few English versions (such as the KJV and NET), it should be noted that the term hádēs is a completely different word than that which is more commonly translated “hell” in most English Bibles (i.e., géenna, which is a transliteration of the Hebrew term, Gêhinnōm, or “Hinnom Valley”). In my study on the meaning of this latter term (click here for part one), I argued that it refers to a valley that forms the western and southern border of the old city of Jerusalem. I further argued that, in fulfillment of Isaiah 66:24, this literal valley will be used for the disposal (and incineration) of the corpses of lawless rebels after Christ returns to earth and restores the kingdom to Israel. Thus, although “Gehenna” (or Hinnom Valley) will be a place of judgment and literal fire during the age to come, it will not be a place of torment. And not only this, but – as I’ll be arguing below – the real nature of “Hades” (i.e., its nature outside of the parable of the rich man and Lazarus) is such that it’s actually impossible for anyone to be tormented there.

Significantly, in both the Septuagint (LXX) and the Greek Scriptures, the term “Hades” was used as the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew word “Sheol” (she'ohl'). For example, in the Hebrew Scriptures, we find the term Sheol used in Psalm 16:10. However, in the LXX, the Greek term Hades was used to translate Sheol. And in Acts 2:27 (where Psalm 16:10 is quoted by Peter), we also find Hades being used as the Greek equivalent for Sheol. But if Hades was used in the New Testament as the Greek equivalent for Sheol, then what is Sheol?

While several derivations for the word Sheol have been offered by Biblical scholars, the term may have been derived from the Hebrew verb sha'al' (which means “to ask or request”). If that’s the case, the name “Sheol” suggests something which (in a figurative sense) continually asks or craves for more (see Prov. 27:20; 30:15-16; Hab. 2:5; cf. Isaiah 5:14). Based on how the word is consistently used in the Hebrew Scriptures, it can be reasonably inferred that Sheol simply denotes “the grave” in a general sense. That is, Sheol refers to wherever the dead reside and return to the dust of the earth (Job 17:16), whether this takes place in a keber (a tomb or place of burial; Gen 23:7-9; Jer. 8:1; 26:23) or elsewhere (Gen. 37:35; Isa 14:9, 11, 15, 19).

That Sheol refers to wherever the dead reside (i.e., the domain or state of the dead) becomes especially evident when we consider the fact that the contents of Sheol are such as can only belong to a location where corpses reside. We read of gray hairs as being in Sheol (Gen 42:38; 44:29, 31), gray heads (1 Kings 2:6, 9), bones (Psalm 141:7; Ezekiel 32:27), sheep (Psalm 49:15), material possessions (Numbers 16:32-33), and swords and other weapons of war (Ezekiel 32:27). Worms and maggots are also spoken of as if present in Sheol (Job 17:13-14; 24:19-20; Isaiah 14:11; cf. Job 21:23-26). And it is noteworthy that Korah and his company were said to go down to Sheol “alive.” This would make little sense if Sheol denoted a supernatural realm of “disembodied spirits.” However, when Sheol is understood to denote the domain of the dead, what we’re told in Numbers 16:32-33 makes perfect sense. Korah and his company simply went down alive to the place where their corpses ended up residing (and where they ultimately returned to dust). Although their resting place was much deeper in the earth than most other places of burial, they were in Sheol, nonetheless.

Because burial was the typical way in which the Hebrews disposed of their dead, Sheol is appropriately described as being beneath the surface of the earth (Ps. 63:9; 86:13; Prov. 15:24; Isa. 7:11; 57:9; Ezek. 26:20; 31:14; 32:18; Prov. 15:24). The dead descend or are made to go down into Sheol, while the revived are represented as ascending or being brought and lifted up from it (1 Sam. 2:6; Job 7:9; Ps. 30:4; Isa. 14:11, 15). And like the caves and other burial places used by the ancient Hebrews, Sheol is described as a place with gates (Job 17:16, 38:17; Isa. 38.10; Ps. 9:14) and as having a “mouth” or place of entrance: “As when one plows and breaks up the earth, so shall our bones be scattered at the mouth of Sheol” (Ps. 141:7) – i.e., at the entrance to the grave. Sheol is also described as marking the point of greatest possible distance that persons could be from the heavens (Job 11:8; Amos 9:2; Ps. 139:8) – hence the expressions “depths of Sheol” (Deut. 32:22; Ps. 86:13; Prov. 9:18) and “depths of the pit” (Ps. 88:6; Lam. 3:55; Ezek. 26:20, 32:24), which denotes the lowest possible places of burial.

Sheol (i.e., the grave in a general sense) is further described as a place of silence (Ps. 3:17, 6:6, 30:10, 88:13, 94:17, 115:17). It is called the “land of forgetfulness” (Ps. 88:12), where all who reside there are without any memory of the past, as well as forgotten by the living (Ps. 31:12). In Job 40:12-13 we read that God declared, “Look on everyone who is proud and bring him low and tread down the wicked where they stand. Hide them all in the dust together; bind their faces in the world below.” Here “the world below” (literally, “the hidden places”) undoubtedly refers to Sheol, and (as elsewhere) is associated with “dust.” Job referred to this silent resting place of the dead as “the land of darkness and the shadow of death: a land of darkness as darkness itself; and of the shadow of death, without any order; and where the light is as darkness” (Job 10:20-22; see also Ps. 88:12; Job 3:5, 16; 12:21-22; 17:13; 1 Sam. 2:9; Ps. 44:19, 107:10, 14, where similar statements are made). This is, of course, fitting imagery if Sheol refers to those darkened places concealed from mortal eyes where corpses return to dust. 

In accord with all of the verses referenced and quoted above, Sheol is also described as a state of corruption and destruction (see Job 26:6, 28:22; Ps. 88:11, 16:10; Job 4:18-20; Ps. 49:9-20; Prov. 15:11, 27:20; Acts 13:26) where one’s form is said to be “consumed” (Ps 49:14). David prophesied that God would not abandon the Messiah’s soul (i.e., the Messiah himself) in Sheol, or let him see corruption (Psalm 16:10; cf. Acts 2:27). Since David was employing Hebrew parallelism here (i.e., where the writer expresses the same thought in slightly different words), it follows that for God to abandon Christ in Sheol would mean to let him “see corruption” (which is a reference to Christ’s body, which would have begun to decompose had God not preserved it and then roused his Son from among the dead on the third day).

In Ecclesiastes 12:5, Solomon tells us that, at death, “man goes to his age-abiding home.” This is undoubtedly another reference to Sheol. Previously he had declared, “All go to one place; all are of the dust, and all return to dust again” (Eccles 3:20). And since, as a matter of course, death naturally comes to all, Sheol is appropriately referred to as “the appointed house for all the living” (Job 30:23; 17:13; Eccl. 11:5). It is here that the dead meet (Ezek. 32; Job 30:23) and rest from their earthly toil in silence without distinction of rank or condition – the rich and the poor, the pious and the wicked, the old and the young, the master and the slave: 

Why did I not die at birth, come out from the womb and expire? Why did the knees receive me? Or why the breasts, that I should nurse? For then I would have lain down and been quiet; I would have slept; then I would have been at rest, with kings and counsellors of the earth who rebuilt ruins for themselves, or with princes who had gold, who filled their houses with silver. Or why was I not as a hidden stillborn child, as infants who never see the light? There the wicked cease from troubling, and there the weary are at rest. There the prisoners are at ease together; they hear not the voice of the taskmaster. The small and the great are there, and the slave is free from his master. Job 3:11-19 (cf. Isa. 57:2). 

Notice how Job understood death to be a state that is like sleep (“For then I would have lain down and been quiet; I would have slept…”). This understanding of the nature of death is expressed again in Job 14:10-12:

“But a man dies and is laid low; man breathes his last, and where is he? As waters fail from a lake and a river wastes away and dries up, so a man lies down and rises not again; till the heavens are no more he will not awake or be roused out of his sleep.”

Notice that it is “man” who, in death, is figuratively spoken of as if he were asleep and in need of being “roused.” Similarly, in Daniel 12:2 we read, 
“From those sleeping in the soil of the ground many shall awake, these to eonian life and these to reproach for eonian repulsion” (CVOT). Here, the “sleep” metaphor obviously applies to that which returns to “the soil of the ground” – i.e., the human body. And since it is human persons who are said to “sleep” after they die, then it can be reasonably inferred that our body is essential to our existence and personal identity. In other words, the lifeless body that returns to the “the soil of the ground” after a human being dies is, in a very real sense, the remains of the individual who died. And this means that those who have died are no more conscious than their lifeless, physical remains:

“The living know that they will die, but the dead know nothing”
 (Eccl 9:5).

“His spirit departs, he returns to the earth; in that very day his thoughts perish” (Psalm 146:4).

“The dead do not praise Yahweh, nor do any that go down into silence” (Psalm 115:17).

In accord with the above verses (where it’s clear that those who have died are not engaged in any kind of conscious and volitional activity), we know from other verses that Sheol is, in fact, a place or state of utter oblivion:

Whatever your hand finds to do, do with your might; for there is no work or thought or knowledge or wisdom in Sheol, to which you are going” (Eccl 9:10).

“For in death there is no remembrance of you; in Sheol who can give you praise?”
 (Psalm 6:5)

“For Sheol cannot thank you, death cannot praise you; those who go down to the pit cannot hope for your faithfulness”
 (Isaiah 38:18).

Moreover, keeping in mind that Hades is the Greek equivalent of Sheol in both the Septuagint and the New Testament, the same inspired truth would be communicated if we replaced the term “Sheol” with “Hades” in these verses:

Whatever your hand finds to do, do it with your might, for there is no work or thought or knowledge or wisdom in Hades, to which you are going.” 

“For in death there is no remembrance of you; in Hades who can give you praise?” 

“For Hades cannot thank you, death cannot praise you; those who go down to the pit cannot hope for your faithfulness”

The conscious dead?

In light of the above considerations, I think the most reasonable and scripturally-informed position to take is that Sheol – and thus Hades – simply refers to the domain of the dead (with “the dead” being constituted by the physical remains of those who have died). There are, however, a few passages from the Hebrew Scriptures that are thought by some to be inconsistent with this conclusion. Thus, before we return to Luke 16:19-31, I think it would be helpful to first consider these passages.

The first passage I’ll be considering is that in which we find the account of Saul and the medium of En-dor (i.e., 1 Samuel 28). When considering this interesting episode in the life of Saul, it should be kept in mind that Saul’s grandson, Solomon, would have undoubtedly been very familiar with this story about his grandfather, Saul. And yet, Solomon expressed a view concerning the state of the dead that is very much inconsistent with the popular Christian interpretation of 1 Samuel 28. According to the understanding of death that we find affirmed by Solomon in Ecclesiastes, Samuel would not have been able to do or know anything while dead. Apparently, Solomon did not understand this account involving his grandfather Saul to reveal anything about the dead that contradicted his own inspired declarations concerning the nature of death and the state of both man and beast after death (Eccl 3:19-20; 9:5, 10). It follows, then, that Solomon probably interpreted this passage quite differently than some Christians do.

If Samuel was actually present when he spoke to Saul (and this seems to have been the view of the one who narrated the incident), then it follows that he wasn’t in Sheol at the time. And if he wasn’t in Sheol, then that which he was able to do while not in Sheol is no indication of what those in Sheol can or can’t do. And there is nothing said in Scripture about the dead being able to leave Sheol while remaining dead. To be in Sheol is simply to be in the state of death, and to be delivered from Sheol is to be delivered from death (Ps. 89:48). In 1 Sam. 2:6 we read the following in Hannah’s prayer: “Yahweh kills and brings to life; he brings down to Sheol and raises up.” The Hebrew parallelism in this verse is clear: those who are killed are “brought down” to Sheol, and those who are restored to life are “raised up” from Sheol. If one believes that Samuel had been “raised up” from Sheol to appear before the medium, then – according to what we read in 1 Sam. 2:6 – Samuel must have been restored by God to a living existence. That is, if Samuel was actually present before the medium (as I’m inclined to believe) – and thus not in Sheol – then there is nothing in Scripture which suggests that he was dead during the time. Instead, the implication would be that he had been (temporarily) restored to life by God.[1]

Thus, while the text doesn’t explicitly say that Samuel was raised from the dead, it can be understood as implied by the fact that the medium describes him as having a physical, embodied form (i.e., as an “old man” wrapped in a “robe”). But did the disembodied, immaterial being that most Christians believe Samuel became after he died look like an old man? Do “ghosts” look naked without any clothes on? The more closely we consider the popular Christian position, the more absurd it gets. Assuming that the entity referred to as “Samuel” was actually Samuel (and not a demonic spirit who was impersonating Samuel, as some believe), the most reasonable interpretation of this passage is that God miraculously restored the dead prophet to a living existence (a feat that would've been no more difficult for God than the original creation of Adam). After Samuel spoke to Saul, it can be inferred that he was simply returned to the lifeless, unconscious state that he he was in prior to being resurrected.

Another passage thought to support the idea that the dead in Sheol/Hades are conscious is Isaiah 14:7-10. In these verses we read the following:

The whole earth is at rest and quiet; they break forth into singing. The cypresses rejoice at you, the cedars of Lebanon, saying, ‘Since you were laid low, no woodcutter comes up against us.’ Sheol beneath is stirred up to meet you when you come; it rouses the dead to greet you, all who were leaders of the earth; it raises from their thrones all who were kings of the nations. All of them will answer and say to you: ‘You too have become as weak as we! You have become like us!’ Your pomp is brought down to Sheol, the sound of your harps; maggots are laid as a bed beneath you, and worms are your covers.

This is clearly figurative language. Just as the earth and trees are represented as singing, talking and rejoicing at the downfall of the king of Babylon, so Sheol itself is personified and described as being “stirred up” to greet its newest inhabitant, and as rousing its slumbering inhabitants to do the same. The imaginary scene being described is that of dead corpses – and not “disembodied spirits” – being awakened from their “sleep” in the grave (hence the reference to “maggots” being laid as a “bed” beneath the king, and "worms" being his "covers"). The entire seen is imaginary and poetic, not literal. Just as trees do not literally speak, neither do dead people.

The death of the king of Babylon is referred to using “tree imagery” because of the figurative imagery already employed, in which trees are represented as rejoicing and speaking. According to the Oxford Annotated Bible, Assyrian and Babylonian kings used great quantities of cedars for their palaces. Because cedars (and apparently cypresses as well) were prized for lumber and often carried off to Babylon, they are represented as rejoicing at the death of the king since no one had come to cut them down. But the main point to be emphasized is that, in this passage, figurative imagery is being employed in which unconscious, inanimate things are represented as if they were animate and conscious. And while the tree imagery is dropped after v. 8, the use of figurative imagery continues into v. 9: “Sheol beneath is stirred up to meet you when you come; it rouses the dead to greet you...” Is Sheol literally a conscious person who can be “stirred up” to meet people, and rouse others to do the same? Of course not. This isn't literally true. Just like the trees of v. 8, Sheol is represented as if it were a conscious person (a literary device known today as ”personification”). And there is no good reason to understand the rest of the passage any differently. Just as trees and Sheol are represented as animate, conscious persons, so are the dead.

Another similar passage where the dead in Sheol are represented as speaking is Ezekiel 32:17-32. In v. 21, certain “mighty chiefs” are figuratively represented as saying to slain Egyptians from “out of the midst of Sheol,” “They have come down, they lie still, the uncircumcised, slain by the sword.” Of course the slain Egyptians “lie still” in Sheol; like all who we’re told “lie among the uncircumcised” in Sheol (v. 28), the Egyptians in view had become lifeless corpses. We’re also told of certain mighty leaders “who went down to Sheol with their weapons of war, whose swords were laid under their heads…” (v. 27). As in Isaiah 14, figurative language is being employed in v. 21; the dead in Sheol cannot literally speak to each other. The dead know nothing, and there is no work or thought or knowledge or wisdom in Sheol.

It’s significant that, even in the non-literal references to Sheol and its deceased inhabitants, no one in Sheol is represented as being in a state of torment. There is not a single verse in the entire Hebrew Scriptures in which Sheol/Hades is described as containing either a place of torment for the wicked or a place of comfort for the righteous. There’s not a single word in “Moses and the Prophets” about Sheol/Hades being a place in which “disembodied souls” reside, or as having two compartments for good and bad persons that are separated by an un-crossable gulf, or about angels whisking righteous people off to “Abraham’s bosom” after they die. Instead, Sheol/Hades was used by the inspired writers to refer to the “domain of the dead” – i.e., wherever the dead reside and eventually return to dust.

Jewish myths

Being true to the nature of a parable, all of Christ’s parables were based on things with which his first-century Jewish audience would have been very familiar, and contained recognizable elements of first-century Jewish society, culture and beliefs. Though the spiritual message of the parable was hidden to those without eyes to see and ears to hear, it was, on the surface, a story to which his audience could immediately relate. This means that Christ told the story of the rich man and Lazarus with the full understanding that his target audience (i.e., the scribes and Pharisees) would have been well acquainted with the details and imagery of the storyIt was, in other words, a story to which they could relate, with specific details they would understand and certain happenings with which they would be familiar. But this point raises the following question: How could the scribes and Pharisees have been familiar with the content of this story? 

In Mark 7 we find Christ rebuking the scribes and Pharisees for “teaching for teachings the directions of men,” for leaving “the precept of God” and “holding the tradition of men,” for “repudiating the precept of God, that [they] should be keeping [their] tradition,“ and for “invalidating the word of God by [their] tradition.” And in addition to the specific examples Christ provided in his rebuke, he further added that there were “many such like things” that they were doing! In light of this fact, I submit that the beliefs on which the parable of the rich man and Lazarus was based (and which, as will be demonstrated below, were held by the Pharisees in Jesus day) were among the “many such like things” to which Christ was referring. 

In his work A Harmony of the Four Gospels, the Scottish Presbyterian minister and writer, James Macknight (1721-1800), had this to say concerning the parable of the rich man and Lazarus:

”It must be acknowledged that our Lord's descriptions are not drawn from the writings of the Old Testament, but have a remarkable affinity to the descriptions which the pagan poets have given. They represent the abodes of the blessed as lying contiguous to the region of the damned, and separated only by a great impassable gulf in such sort that the ghosts could talk to one another from the opposite banks. If from these resemblances it is thought the parable is formed on the pagan mythology, it will not at all follow that our Lord approved of what the common people thought or spoke concerning these matters, agreeably to the notions of Greeks. In parables, provided the doctrines inculcated are strictly true, the terms in which they are inculcated may be such as are most familiar to the people, and the images made use of are such as they are best acquainted with.”

Similarly, J.L. Mosheim describes how these pagan ideas began to spread among the Jews during the period between the writing of the Hebrew and Greek Scriptures as follows:

“The ancestors of those Jews who lived in the time of our Savior had brought from Chaldaea and the neighboring countries many extravagant and idle fancies which were utterly unknown to the original founders of the nation. The conquest of Asia by Alexander the Great was also an event from which we may date a new accession of errors to the Jewish system, since, in consequence of that revolution, the manners and opinions of the Greeks began to spread among the Jews. Beside this, in their voyages to Egypt and Phoenicia, they brought home, not only the wealth of these corrupt and superstitious nations, but also their pernicious errors and idle fables, which were imperceptibly blended with their own religious doctrines.” (Church History, Century 1, pt. 1, chap. 2)

In support of what we read above, we know that the Pharisees in Jesus’ day did, in fact, believe in a subterranean place of retribution in which it was thought that the “immortal souls” of the wicked would be eternally tormented. Concerning the beliefs of the Pharisees, the first-century Jewish historian, Josephus, wrote the following: “They believe that souls have an immortal rigor in them, and that under the earth there will be rewards or punishments, according as they have lived virtuously or according to vice in this life; and the latter are to be detained in an everlasting prison, but that the former shall have power to revive and live again” (D. Ant. 18.14-15). And in another place (B. War 2.162-64), Josephus wrote that the Pharisees “say that all souls are imperishable, but that the souls of good men only are removed into other bodies, but that the souls of bad men are subject to eternal punishment.

It should be noted that the Greek words translated “everlasting prison” and “eternal punishment” in this quotation from Josephus are “eirgmon aidion” and “aidios timoria,” respectively. Although the second expression is translated “eternal punishment” in the above excerpt, these words should not be confused with the expression that’s commonly translated “eternal punishment” in Matthew 25:46 (which is, instead, “kolasin aionios”). Despite being translated as “eternal punishment” in most English Bibles, the expression “kolasin aionios” in Matt. 25:46 means something entirely different from “aidios timoria” (the words in each expression are not even related to each other). Rather than being translated “eternal punishment,” a more accurate translation of kolasin aionios in Matt. 25:46 would be “chastening eonian” (CLNT), “eonian discipline” (Dabhar) or “age-abiding correction” (Rotherham).[2]

The Pharisees weren’t the only first-century Jews to believe that the “disembodied souls” of the wicked were punished in an “everlasting prison” under the earth. The Essenes (who were another Jewish sect that existed in Jesus’ day) also believed that the “disembodied souls” of the wicked were eternally punished in some dark, subterranean region. Here, again, is Josephus:

“For their doctrine is this: That bodies are corruptible, and that the matter they are made of is not permanent; but that the souls are immortal, and continue forever; and that they come out of the most subtle air, and are united to their bodies as to prisons, into which they are drawn by a certain natural enticement; but that when they are set free from the bonds of the flesh, they then, as released from a long bondage, rejoice and mount upward. And this is like the opinions of the Greeks, that good souls have their habitations beyond the ocean, in a region that is neither oppressed with storms of rain or snow, or with intense heat, but that this place is such as is refreshed by the gentle breathing of a west wind, that is perpetually blowing from the ocean; while they allot to bad souls a dark and tempestuous den, full of never-ceasing punishments.

And indeed the Greeks seem to me to have followed the same notion, when they allot the islands of the blessed to their brave men, whom they call heroes and demi-gods; and to the souls of the wicked, the region of the ungodly, in Hades, where their fables relate that certain persons, such as Sisyphus, and Tantalus, and Ixion, and Tityus, are punished; which is built on this first supposition, that souls are immortal; and thence are those exhortations to virtue and dehortations from wickedness collected; whereby good men are bettered in the conduct of their life by the hope they have of reward after their death; and whereby the vehement inclinations of bad men to vice are restrained, by the fear and expectation they are in, that although they should lie concealed in this life, they should suffer immortal punishment after their death. These are the Divine doctrines of the Essenes about the soul, which lay an irresistible bait for such as have once had a taste of their philosophy.” Josephus, War 2.154-158 (https://www.gutenberg.org/files/2850/2850-h/2850-h.htm#link2note-6)

In contrast with this understanding of what happens to people after they die, we’re told by Josephus that the Sadducees (who we know from Scripture denied the reality of the resurrection) “take away the belief of the immortal duration of the soul, and the punishments and rewards in Hades.” Evidently, then, the “Hades” in which the Pharisees and Essenes believed was not simply the grave in a general sense, or a lifeless state of oblivion in which the dead must remain until being restored to a living existence. Rather, in accord with Greek mythology, it was thought to be a subterranean place where rewards and punishments were meted out to the disembodied, “immortal souls” of those who went there after they “died.”

Evidently, by Jesus’ day it was a commonly-held belief that faithful Jews would, after death, join Abraham, Isaac and Jacob in a place of comfort and honor. For example, we find this view promoted in 4 Maccabees (a first-century Jewish work) as follow:

Let us not fear him who thinks he is killing us, for great is the soul’s contest and the danger of eternal torment lying before those who transgress the commandment of God. Therefore let us put on the full armor of mastery of the passions that divine reason provides. For if we so die, Abraham and Isaac and Jacob will welcome us, and all the fathers will praise us. (4 Macc. 13:14-17)

Although the unknown author of this work clearly believed in the immortality of the soul, he made no reference to the resurrection of the dead.

In another first-century Jewish work (the “Apocalypse of Zephaniah”), the Greek mythology on which this unscriptural view of the afterlife is based is even more obvious. In this uninspired work, it’s said that an angel would guide deceased, faithful Jews across a river or chasm in Hades to join the immortal souls of the Jewish patriarchs (and others) in a place of comfort. This angel is clearly the equivalent of the ferryman of the underworld from Greek mythology (i.e., Charon).

We can therefore conclude that the parable of the rich man and Lazarus simply reflected the Pharisee’s own unscriptural beliefs concerning the afterlife (which were derived from extra-biblical sources and traditions that had, at some point, become part of their religious tradition). Jesus was not, therefore, teaching the Pharisees to whom he told this parable anything new. Nor was Jesus endorsing as true what the Pharisees already believed (for we know that the content of the parable of the rich man and Lazarus was not based on anything found in the word of God, and – as noted above – Jesus elsewhere rebuked the scribes and Pharisees for departing from the Scriptures, and for replacing Scriptural truths and precepts with their own traditions). Instead, Christ was simply incorporating their own unscriptural beliefs (which they’d derived from the uninspired beliefs of pagans) into a fictional parable directed against them. 

By formulating a parable out of their own erroneous beliefs about the “afterlife,” Christ more forcefully rebuked his unbelieving opponents. It is as if Christ had said to the Pharisees, “Since you believe the dead are rewarded and punished in Hades – contrary to what is said in your own inspired Scriptures – then allow me to introduce the testimony of your beloved patriarch, Abraham, to condemn you according to your own false beliefs.” And that is just what Christ did when, after representing the rich man as pleading with Abraham to send Lazarus to his five brothers to warn them of the “place of torment” in which the Pharisees believed, Christ had Abraham respond to this request with the following words: “They have Moses and the Prophets; let them hear them.” The fact that Christ had Abraham refer to “Moses and the Prophets” in the parable is significant, since – as argued above – there is not a single verse anywhere in the Hebrew Scriptures where the wicked are said to go to a place of fiery torment after they die. 

Some may take exception to the idea that Jesus would use a false belief as a basis for his teaching, since they think it would mean Christ was sanctioning the false teaching. However, the truth or falsity of the story in a parable is irrelevant; it is the lesson conveyed through the story that is the intended point. Furthermore, the nature of satire is to demonstrate faulty thinking on the part of those being satirized. We can thus conclude that it was the false beliefs of the Pharisees which were being criticized by Christ just as much as those who held to those beliefs. Even if the Pharisees to whom Christ told the parable of the rich man and Lazarus continued to believe that the wicked were punished in Hades, we have no reason to think Christ would have attempted to correct their mistaken view; the parable itself pointed them to their own inspired Scriptures (which contradicted the erroneous beliefs to which they held, and were sufficient to bring about any needed doctrinal correction for those who heeded them). It’s also unlikely that the disciples would have understood Christ to have been speaking approvingly of the Pharisaic opinions on which the parable was based, especially once they realized it was a parable directed against the very persons who believed and taught such things. 



[1]  It may be objected that Saul seemed to have been unable to see Samuel. However, we know the medium could see him (for we read that she cried out in surprise when he appeared). Apparently, then, the individual seen by the medium was not an invisible, “disembodied spirit.” Saul’s inability to see Samuel can easily be accounted for by the fact that the medium was likely using a “conjuring pit.” Mediums at that time used large holes in the ground from which they pretended to summon the ghosts of the dead during their séances. In Vine's Expository Dictionary, we read the following concerning the “conjuring pit” used by mediums: “In its earliest appearances (Sumerian), ob refers to a pit out of which a departed spirit may be summoned. Later Assyrian texts use this word to denote simply a pit in the ground. Akkadian texts describe a deity that is the personification of the pit, to whom a particular exorcism ritual was addressed. Biblical Hebrew attests this word 16 times.” Similarly, the Journal of Biblical Literature has this to say on the word ob: “Initially, the term may have hinted of a ‘hole’ from which dead spirits ascended from the spirit-world to earth’s environment to communicate with the living, with the word eventually being used for the spirits themselves” (Hoffner, 385-401). If Samuel had indeed been temporarily restored by God to a living, embodied existence within the medium’s “conjuring pit,” then Saul would not have been able to see him initially unless he was looking down into it (as the medium would have been doing).

[2] As I’ve argued in greater depth elsewhere (see, for example, the following study: http://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2015/01/eternal-or-eonian-part-one_17.html), the term “aionios” is the adjectival form of the noun aion. Since the noun from which the adjective is derived means “age” or “eon” (i.e., the longest segment of time known in the Scriptures), the adjective aionios should be understood to mean, “lasting for, or pertaining to, an eon or eons.” It does not pertain to “eternity” but rather to long intervals of time that have both a beginning and an end (with the last two eons being the future eons during which Christ and the saints will be reigning). See also my article on the meaning of the noun aión in the Greek Scriptures: http://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2019/03/the-meaning-of-aion-in-new-testament.html. Concerning the meaning of the “chastening eonian” that is said to be the destiny of the unrighteous “goats” referred to in Matt. 25:46, see my seven-part study on this subject: http://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2018/04/the-judgment-of-sheep-and-goats-study_14.html

Monday, May 11, 2020

The Nature, Purpose and Destiny of the Adversary (Part Five)

Satan’s eonian purpose and ultimate destiny

Having defended the view that “the Adversary” (tou diabolou) and “the Satan” (tou satanas) referred to in the Greek Scriptures should be understood as an intelligent, superhuman being who belongs to the same order of celestial spirits as Michael and Gabriel, I’ll close this study with a brief scriptural defense of what I believe his present, eonian purpose is, and what I believe his post-eonian destiny will involve.

With regard to Satan’s present eonian purpose and role, one of the following must be true: either (1) Satan was created by God with a sinful character/disposition or (2) he acquired a sinful character/disposition at some point subsequent to his creation. Most Christians hold to the latter view, and believe that Satan underwent a change in character at some point after he was created (at which point he went from being righteous and “pure in heart” to being sinful and wicked). However, I believe that Scripture reveals that no such change in Satan’s character/disposition ever took place.

The titles “Satan” and “the Adversary” reveal to us the eonian purpose for which the spiritual being to whom these titles belong (and by which he is known) was created by God. His role in God’s plan is to be the adversary, or opponent, of God (and, by implication, the adversary/opponent of mankind). In accord with this point, we read in John 8:44 that Christ declared the following to a group of unbelieving Jews:

“You are of your father, the Adversary, and the desires of your father you are wanting to do. He was a man-killer from the beginning, and does not stand in the truth, for truth is not in him. Whenever he may be speaking a lie, he is speaking of his own, for he is a liar, and the father of it.”

And in 1 John 3:8 we find a similarly-worded description of the Adversary:

”Yet he who is doing sin is of the Adversary, for from the beginning is the Adversary sinning. For this was the Son of God manifested, that He should be annulling the acts of the Adversary.”

The words “from the beginning” in these verses indicate that the Adversary (i.e., Satan) has been sinning (and a “man-killer”) since the time that he was created by God. 

It should be noted that someone can be considered a “man-killer” without actually killing anyone. In 1 John 3:15, we read that anyone who has hatred for his brother is a “man-killer.” Being a “man-killer,” then, has to do with the unloving desires and disposition of a person’s heart. It does not require that one be responsible for the actual act of taking someone’s life (or even that they have the intention of taking someone's life).

Meyer's NT Commentary articulates this point well:

Every one who hates his brother is a murderer, not merely inasmuch as hatred sometimes leads to murder, but because by his nature he is inclined to the destruction of his brother, and if he does not attain this object is only hindered from it by other opposing forces” (https://biblehub.com/commentaries/1_john/3-15.htm).

Thus, Satan can be said to have been “a man-killer from the beginning” if, in accord with God’s eonian purpose, Satan was created with a sinful and malicious disposition that inevitably led him to seek the destruction and ruin of mankind as soon as he had the opportunity to do so. That is, Satan's created nature is such that he was inclined to bring about the death of mankind.

Notice, also, that the reason that Satan does not stand in the truth is that "truth is not in him." The implication is that, if the truth was in him, he would "stand in the truth." But what does it mean for the truth to not be in him? It means he's ignorant of the truth (i.e., the truth that, if apprehended, would result in him standing in the truth rather than being a liar and a deceiver). We can thus conclude that God – in order that Satan do what he does – has deprived him of some important truth, and keeps him from coming to a realization of this truth (and it can be inferred that this has been the case “from the beginning”).

In response to this understanding of Satan’s purpose and “original state,” those who hold to the most commonly-held view concerning Satan (i.e., that he was originally a “holy angel” with a pure/sinless disposition) may be inclined to object as follows: 

The expression “from the beginning” simply means, “from the beginning of creation” (as is the case in Matthew 19:4; cf. Mark 10:6). Thus, we need not believe that Satan was sinful when he was created; rather, the words “from the beginning” simply tell us that, by the time God created the heavens and the earth, Satan had already become a sinful being.

In response to this objection, when Christ used the same expression in Matt. 19:4 in reference to Adam and Eve, the “beginning” in view refers to the time when mankind was created by God:

Now He, answering, said, “Did you not read that the Maker from the beginning makes them male and female…?”

What we read in Mark 10:6 is in accord with this understanding:

“Yet from the beginning of creation God makes them male and female.”

Here, “the beginning of creation” refers to the six days of God’s creative work (for it was on the sixth day that God created mankind; see Gen. 1:27, 31; 5:1-2; cf. Deut. 4:32). It’s because God created mankind (and made “male and female”) at “the beginning of creation” that the expression “from the beginning of creation” is used in Mark 10:6. Had mankind been created earlier than “the beginning of creation,” the use of the additional words found in Mark’s Account (“of creation”) wouldn’t have been used. For the point is that, as long as mankind has existed on the earth, they have been male and female. Thus, when we find the expression “from the beginning” used in reference to Satan, we can reasonably conclude that the “beginning” refers to the time when Satan was created by God.

Moreover, the above objection requires that Satan was created by God at some point prior to “the beginning” of which we read in John 8:44 and 1 John 3:8. But the view that Satan came into existence before “the beginning” referred to in these verses is contrary to what we read in John 1:1-3. In these verses we read the following:

In the beginning was the word, and the word was toward God, and God was the word. This was in the beginning toward God. All came into being through it, and apart from it not even one thing came into being which has come into being.”

According to what we read here, it was “in the beginning” that everything that has come into being came into being. Since Satan is a created being (and thus came into being through the divine word of which John wrote), it follows that he – along with all other celestial beings – came into being “in the beginning.” And since Satan has had a murderous, lying and sinful disposition “from the beginning,” we can conclude that he’s been this way since the time that he was created by God (and that, therefore, God created Satan to be the adversary that he is).

Most Christians cannot accept even the possibility that God might have created Satan (or any other being) with a sinful disposition. For this, of course, would mean that God is ultimately and absolutely responsible for the entrance of sin into the universe through Satan. However, Scripture is clear that the sovereignty of God is absolute, and that his purpose is all-encompassing (click here for a defense of this important truth). As is clear from verses such as Isaiah 45:7 and 54:16, God is responsible for both good and evil circumstances:

“Maker of welfare and Creator of evil, I, Yahweh Elohim, make all of these things.”

“And I, I created the ruiner to harm.”

Since God is operating all in accord with the counsel of his will (Eph. 1:11), it follows that the entrance of sin and evil into the universe through Satan was an event that God intended to occur, and that the sinfulness of Satan is in accord with God’s sovereign purpose. Satan’s first sinful act after being created by God did not, therefore, take God by surprise or thwart his intention. Rather, the commencement (and continuation) of Satan’s sinful career was just as much in accord with God’s intention and purpose as was the creation of the heavens and the earth. When Satan, through the serpent, deluded Eve, he was doing exactly what God created him to do (and thus did exactly what God expected him to do). Does this mean that Satan’s actions at this time weren’t sinful? No. That which makes any volitional action sinful (or not) is the motive behind it. Thus, if the motive with which Satan did what he did when he deluded Eve in the garden was sinful, then Satan sinned when he deluded Eve. It’s that simple. The fact that Satan was created by God with a sinful disposition (and thus is doing exactly what he was created to do) does not change the fact that he was sinning when he deluded Eve and caused her to transgress God’s command (for a more in-depth defense of the truth that sin is still sin – and that God is still good – even though God is ultimately responsible for the sinfulness of his creatures, click the following link: http://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2015/03/sin-is-still-sin-and-god-is-still-good.html).

One expression that’s commonly used by Christians in defense of the view that God should not be considered responsible for the entrance of sin into the universe is that “God is not the author of sin.” The rhetorical force of this expression, however, is entirely dependent on its inherent ambiguity. If this statement is to be understood as meaning, “God did not create a being with a sinful disposition,” then it would simply be question-begging in nature (and – apart from any reason provided in defense of such a claim – can simply be dismissed as a mere unsubstantiated assumption). On the other hand, the statement “God is not the author of sin” could also be understood to mean, “God has never sinned.” If that’s how the expression should be understood, then I take no issue with it. I fully agree that God has never sinned (and indeed cannot sin). The only way that the sinlessness of God could possibly constitute an objection to the view that God created Satan with a sinful disposition (and thus willed that sin exist) is if it was a sin for God to have done this. But is this, in fact, the case? I see no good reason to believe that it is.

For God to intend that sin exist in the universe and for him to actually sin are two completely different things. There is no good reason to think that God couldn’t do the former without doing the latter. Again, that which makes any volitional action sinful (or not) is the motive behind it. Thus, if God had a wise and benevolent reason for bringing into existence a being whose disposition was such that he was incapable of not sinning (which would imply that God knew the creation of such a being would ultimately contribute to the maximization of his glory and the happiness of every created being), then God’s intention to create such a being could in no way be considered sinful. And this would be the case even if one didn’t understand how, exactly, God’s intention to create a sinful being could spring from a wise and benevolent motive (or how, exactly, such an act on God’s part could ultimately result in his being glorified, and in the happiness of all being maximized).

One reason why many Christians can’t accept the truth that God created Satan with a sinful disposition is because they believe that, because of Satan’s deceptive work in the world, billions of people are going to be “eternally lost.” Thus, if God himself were responsible for Satan’s sinful disposition (and, by extension, Satan’s sinful acts), then this would make God ultimately responsible for the eternally tragic fate that most Christians believe awaits those whom Satan has managed to deceive (and who end up dying in a deceived, unbelieving state). Consider the following argument (which reflects the reasoning of many Christians):

1. If those whom Satan has managed to deceive are going to be eternally lost, then it cannot be true that God (who is perfectly loving and just) is responsible for the sinful disposition of Satan.
2. Everyone whom Satan has managed to deceive is going to be eternally lost.
3. It cannot be true that God (who is perfectly loving and just) is responsible for the sinful disposition of Satan.

However, as I’ve argued in greater depth elsewhere on my blog (see, for example, the following article: http://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2020/01/are-unbelievers-destined-for.html), the second premise is unscriptural and false. Scripture doesn’t teach that anyone is going to be “eternally lost.” Not only does Scripture reveal that all humanity is going to be saved, but it’s further revealed that every other being in creation who is (or ever will be) in need of being subjected to Christ and reconciled to God is, in fact, going to be subjected to Christ and reconciled to God. And this necessarily includes Satan himself. In 1 Corinthians 15:25-28 we read the following:

For [Christ] must be reigning until He should be placing all His enemies under His feet. The last enemy is being abolished: death. For He subjects all under His feet. Now whenever He may be saying that all is subject, it is evident that it is outside of Him Who subjects all to Him. Now, whenever all may be subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also shall be subjected to Him Who subjects all to Him, that God may be All in all.

Satan is thus destined to be subjected to Christ and to become part of the “all” in which God is ultimately going to be “All.” And, as Paul tells us in Colossians 1:17-20, this final state will involve being reconciled to God:

And He [Christ Jesus] is the Head of the body, the ecclesia, Who is Sovereign, Firstborn from among the dead, that in all He may be becoming first, for in Him the entire complement delights to dwell, and through Him to reconcile all to Him (making peace through the blood of His cross), through Him, whether those on the earth or those in the heavens.

Most Christians are, of course, just as opposed to the truth that Satan is ultimately going to be saved (and will thus cease to be sinful) as they are to the truth that he was created by God with a sinful disposition. They don’t want God to be responsible for Satan’s salvation any more than they want him to be responsible for Satan’s sinfulness. One verse that is sometimes appealed to by Christians in support of the view that Satan is never going to be saved is Hebrews 2:14 (where we’re told that Christ died so that he ”should be discarding him who has the might of death, that is, the Adversary…”). However, the word translated “discarding” in this verse (καταργέω, orkatargeo”) does not mean or imply that the Adversary is never going to be saved. In Luke 13:7, the same word katargeo was used to refer to a land being made unproductive. In Thayer’s Greek Lexicon, the first three meanings of the word katargeo are given as follows:

1: to render idle, unemployed, inactivate, inoperative
1a: to cause a person or thing to have no further efficiency
1b: to deprive of force, influence, power


In light of these definitions, it can be said that Christ – by virtue of his sacrificial death (through which he acquired “all authority in heaven and on earth” and became “Lord of all”) – is ultimately going to deprive the Adversary of his influence and power, and cause him to “have no further efficiency.” This is in accord with what we read in 1 John 3:8: ”For this was the Son of God manifested, that He should be annulling the acts of the Adversary.”

Revelation 20:10 is, by far, the main “proof-text” to which most Christians will appeal in support of their belief that Satan will never be saved. Here is how this verse reads in the English Standard Version (which can be considered representative of how this verse reads in most English Bibles):

“…and the devil who had deceived them was thrown into the lake of fire and sulfur where the beast and the false prophet were, and they will be tormented day and night forever and ever.”

However, as I’ve argued elsewhere, a more literal and accurate translation of the Greek expression that is translated as “forever and ever” in most English Bibles (eis tous aiónas tón aiónón) would be “for the eons of the eons.” Here is how Rev. 20:10 reads in the Concordant Literal New Testament:

And the Adversary who is deceiving them was cast into the lake of fire and sulphur, where the wild beast and where the false prophet are also. And they shall be tormented day and night for the eons of the eons.

The time period expressed by the words “for the eons of the eons” in this verse is the same time period that’s in view in Eph. 2:7 (where Paul referred to “the oncoming eons” during which God shall be displaying the transcendent riches of His grace in His kindness to us in Christ Jesus”). These future “eons of the eons” (called such because they will be the greatest of all the eons) are the eons of the reign of Christ and the saints (Rev. 22:5). However, we know from Paul’s prophecy in 1 Cor. 15:22-28 that Christ’s reign (and thus the eons during which Christ and the saints shall be reigning) is eventually going to end. And this means that the span of time expressed by the words eis tous aiónas tón aiónón (“for the eons of the eons”) cannot be endless. 

Consider the following argument:

1. The Greek expression translated “for the eons of the eons” in Rev. 20:10 does not refer to a span of time that will extend beyond the span of time during which Christ shall be reigning.
2. According to what is revealed in 1 Corinthians 15:22-28, Christ is not going to be reigning over the kingdom for an endless duration of time (his reign is only “until” a certain point).
3. Thus, the span of time to which the expression “for the eons of the eons” refers cannot be endless in duration.

In light of these considerations, we can conclude that Satan’s period of torment in the lake of fire is not going to be “eternal.” Instead, it’s going to continue no further than the reign of Christ. And when Christ has subjected all to himself and delivered the kingdom to his God and Father, the being formerly known by his titles “the Adversary” and “Satan” will be reconciled to God and be part of the “all” in whom God is going to be “All.”