The truth of the
salvation of all humanity is, I believe, one of the most important and beautiful
doctrinal truths revealed in scripture. And elsewhere on my blog (such as my three-part
series on Christ’s ransoming work as well as the very first blog article I posted), I’ve demonstrated where, in scripture, I believe this truth has been
revealed to us (as well as why I believe the verses to which I’ve appealed in
support of this truth do, in fact,
support it). Among those who’ve read my articles on this doctrinal subject,
some may wonder why I haven’t appealed to verses outside of Paul’s letters in
defense of this truth. The reason for this is simple: I’m not convinced that
the truth of the salvation of all humanity can be found outside of Paul’s
letters.
Now, I hope the
reader will not misunderstand me here. I firmly believe that the rest of Scripture
is perfectly consistent with the truth of the salvation of all. There’s not a
single verse or passage in scripture that I believe contradicts this doctrine.
I also believe that there are many verses throughout the scriptures that can be
understood as “pointing toward” this truth (to a greater or lesser degree),
without actually revealing or affirming it. And there are some great
articles and books out there which I believe convincingly show that, in light
of other clearly-affirmed truths of scripture – such as the love, wisdom and
absolute sovereignty of God – the doctrine of the salvation of all humanity is
far more reasonable to believe than any of the alternative positions affirmed
by Christians (and could even be considered a necessary inference, as I argued
in one of my earlier blog articles). But as for an actual revelation of the
truth of the salvation of the entire human race (as well as the reconciliation
of all creation to God), I think this priceless doctrinal gem can be found in
Paul’s letters alone.
I realize that there
are a number of verses and passages outside of Paul’s letters to the body of
Christ that some believe support this doctrinal truth (such as, for example, Genesis
12:3, Lamentations 3:31, Ecclesiastes 12:7, Acts 3:21, 2 Peter 3:9 and
Revelation 21:3-5). However, I believe that these and other verses have been misunderstood,
and are being misapplied, by those who appeal to them in support of the truth
of universal salvation. And insofar as this is the case, I can’t help but
believe that those who appeal to them have, unfortunately, failed to fully appreciate
what’s actually being revealed and communicated in the verse or passage in
view. For example, Lamentations 3:31 is about God’s faithfulness to his
covenant people, Israel, and not to all humanity without exception (see, for
example, Lam. 4:22; 5:18-22).[1] Similarly, the “restoration of all” referred to by Peter in
Acts 3:21 is not a reference to the salvation of all humanity, but rather has
to do with the fulfillment of all of the promises God made concerning the
future destiny and expectation of Israel (compare the terminology used here
with that found earlier in Acts 1:6, where we find the disciples asking Christ
if he was about to be “restoring the kingdom to
Israel”).[2] And Peter’s words in 2 Pet. 3:9 apply to those whom God has
chosen for “entrance into the eonian kingdom of our
Lord and Savior Jesus Christ” (2 Pet. 1:11), and to whom God will be
mercifully granting repentance before the coming indignation of the “day of the
Lord” commences. Rather than being a promise to save all humanity, this verse implies that many people will, in fact,
“perish” (and thus fail to enter into the “eonian kingdom” referred to
earlier).
Some believers – in
their understandable zeal for the truth of the salvation of all – assume that
such a beautiful and glorious truth as this must
be present (or at least heavily implied) throughout the scriptures. I myself
once believed this to be the case, and read books by authors who believed and
defended it. However, I’ve since come to understand that scripture is primarily
concerned with events taking place during the eons. That is, its main focus is
on that which has occurred, and will be occurring, during these long spans of
time (the
last two of which will be the eons for which Christ shall be reigning).[3] And insofar as scripture’s main
focus is on that which has occurred (and will be occurring) during the eons, I
don’t believe it has much to say concerning that which will be occurring
when/after Christ’s eonian reign ends, and he delivers up the kingdom to God
(in fulfillment of Paul’s prophecy in 1 Cor. 15:24-28). And insofar as the
salvation of all humanity (and the reconciliation of all to God) is going to
take place at the very end of
Christ’s eonian reign (and thus after
the last and greatest eon has run its course), this event is among the most
distant future events revealed in scripture. Even if Christ were to return to establish
the kingdom of God on the earth within the next ten years (as I think is
possible), the salvation of all could still be considered a relatively distant
future event. As long as Christ’s reign over the kingdom of God continues –
and, according to scripture, its duration will be “for the eons of the eons”
(Revelation 11:15) – the salvation of all will remain a future reality.
Most Christians see
the last book of the Bible – i.e., the Book of Revelation or “Unveiling of
Jesus Christ” – as the pinnacle of revelation and prophecy, and believe that
its author (the apostle John) saw further into the future than any other inspired
writer. However, rather than revealing what is to occur at the consummation (as
Paul does in 1 Cor. 15:22-28 and elsewhere), the furthest point to which I
believe John brings his readers is the final eon of Christ’s reign. In accord
with this fact, all of the blessings of which we read in Rev. 21:3-4 (for
example) have to do with conditions on the new earth during Christ’s reign, and
do not refer to a state of affairs beyond the last eon. Similarly, the
fulfillment of the inspiring promise found in v. 5 (“Lo! New am I making all!”)
will, I believe, be occurring when this future eon begins, and should be understood as referring to all that will be
in existence during this time period
(e.g., the new heavens and new earth, and everything that will be populating
these realms).[4] Thus, as important and valuable as the truth found in John’s
prophetic work is, I believe it still falls short of the highest and most
glorious truth that we find revealed in Paul’s letters to the saints in the
body of Christ.
Outside of Paul’s
writings to the saints in the body of Christ, it would seem that John’s Gospel
account and first letter are the most commonly appealed to in support of the
doctrine of universal salvation. However, as is the case with the verses on
which I provided some brief remarks above, I believe that every verse or
passage from these writings that’s thought by some to affirm the salvation of
all humanity is actually affirming a truth that pertains to events that will be
taking place during the eons of Christ’s reign (and thus prior to the
consummation). I realize this position is not affirmed by some (perhaps many)
within the body of Christ, and will be considered somewhat controversial among
my fellow believers in the salvation of all. Thus, the bulk of this study will
consist in a defense of the view to which I hold concerning what John revealed
(and didn’t reveal) in his writings.
As I provide reasons
for why I don’t think the truth of the salvation of all is revealed in John’s
writings, some may think that I’m trying to undermine the truth of the
salvation of all. But that’s the opposite of what I’m trying to do here. My
goal is not to weaken the case for this doctrinal position, but rather to
strengthen it. Some seem to believe that the case for the salvation of all is
only as strong as the number of verses we can put forth in support of it.
According to this understanding, the more “proof-texts” we have, the stronger
the case we can make for the doctrine. Given this mindset, it’s not at all
surprising that some have attempted to use verses which, although consistent
with (and perhaps “pointing toward”) the truth of universal salvation, are
really not directly related to this truth. However, when it comes to defending
this important doctrine, a single verse or passage that clearly proves the
truth of the salvation of all humanity (e.g., 1 Tim. 4:10) is far more valuable
and powerful than a hundred misapplied verses, no matter how positive or
inspiring the truth being affirmed in these verses may be. And the clear
evidence for the salvation of all that we find in Paul’s letters is, I believe,
entirely adequate to support this doctrine, and should be the focus of every
believer in their defense of it.
In relation to the
last point, I also believe that, when we come to the realization that the
apostle Paul was the only inspired writer to reveal the truth of the salvation
of all humanity and the reconciliation of all creation to God, this realization
can only lead to a greater appreciation for his unique calling and apostolic
ministry, and for the thirteen epistles he wrote for the edification of those
within the body of Christ. Thus, my hope for those reading is that, rather than
feeling like they’ve lost a few “proof-texts” for the doctrine of universal
salvation from John’s writings, they will have gained a deeper appreciation and
gratitude for Paul, the apostle of the nations.
The meaning of the term “world” in John’s Account
Before we examine the
first verse from John’s Account that is considered by some to be an affirmation
of the truth that all humanity will be saved, we need to consider the meaning
of the Greek word translated “world” (kosmos).
The term literally means, “an ordered system,” and can denote different things
in different contexts. In the three “Synoptic Gospels” (Matthew, Mark and
Luke), the word seems to be used most often to denote the realm of human
society (Matt. 4:8; 5:14; 13:22, 38; 24:14; Mark 16:15; Luke 12:30). This is
also how I believe the word is most often used in John’s writings.
For example, in 1
John 5:19 we’re told that “the whole world is lying in the wicked one.” Although a vast
number of people on the earth could be said to be, to some degree or another,
living under the deceptive influence and control of Satan (cf. 2 Cor. 4:3-4;
Eph. 2:1-2; 2 Tim. 2:26), this is not the case for every human being alive on
the earth today (nor was it the case when John wrote). However, when understood
as a reference to the whole realm of human society, John’s statement can be
understood in a literal, straightforward way (since human society is constituted
by an unbelieving majority). Consider also the last verse of John’s Gospel,
where we read that, if everything Jesus did during his earthly ministry was
written down, “not even the world itself could contain the written scrolls” (John
21:25). By the “whole world” here, John was apparently referring to the whole realm
of human society – where scrolls and books are (or could be) kept – rather than
human beings themselves (whether collectively or individually).
Moreover, anywhere
that we find the expression “into the world” in
John’s account, the realm of human society – and not human beings themselves –
seems to be in view. We read, for example, of a human child being “born into the world” (John 16:21). And on several
occasions Christ referred to himself (or is referred to) as having come “into
the world” (e.g., John 6:14; 11:27; 12:46) and as having been dispatched “into
the world” by God (John 10:36). We also read that, just as the Father
dispatched his Son into the world, so Christ dispatched his twelve disciples
into the world (John 17:18) – i.e., he dispatched them into the realm of human
society, to conduct their public ministry as his apostles.
The first four
occurrences of the word kosmos appear in John 1:9-10: “The true light, which gives light to everyone, was coming
into the world. He was in
the world, and the world was made through him, yet
the world did not know
him.” As is the case with the verses referenced earlier, the term kosmos or “world” seems to be denoting the realm of human
society. It must be noted that, with the last instance of the word in v. 10 (“yet the world did not know him”), a figure of speech (i.e.,
association) is being used. Obviously, the realm of human society into which
the “the true light” (i.e., God, who made himself known through his Son)
entered cannot literally “know” God, or anything at all. Rather, it is people who are in the world (i.e., people
within the realm of human society) who can be said to either know, or not know,
God. That the term is being used figuratively in v. 10 to denote people in the
world is further evident from the next verse: ”To his
own he came, and those who are his own accepted him not.”
The last part of
verse 10 indicates that the word kosmos can be used figuratively to denote people in the realm of human society. But when the word is used in a
figurative sense to denote people, does it refer to every person without
exception? Or, does it refer to only a certain category of people, depending on
the context? I’m convinced that the latter is the case, and that the word
kosmos rarely – if ever – refers to every person in the world without
exception. Consider, for example, John 1:10-11. Based on these two verses
alone, one might conclude that not a single person in the world accepted God.
However, in the next verse, we’re provided with the exception to the statement
that “the world did not know him”: “Yet whoever
obtained him, to them he gives the right to become children of God…” The
“whoever” of v. 12 is a subcategory of those referred to as “his own” in v. 11.
Thus, from these verses, we find that there were some who did come to know
the Father through Christ, and who were given “the right to become children of
God.”
In John 1:7 and 15:8
Christ referred to “the world” as hating him. But now consider what Christ said
concerning the people that he had in mind by the term “world”: “…they have hated Me as well as My Father, but it is that the word written in their law may be
fulfilled, that they hate Me gratuitously” (John 15:25). In other words,
the people in the world whom Christ had in mind when he declared that “the
world” hated him were specifically unbelievers belonging to the Jewish nation,
and not all people without exception
(or even all unbelievers without exception). Consider also John 16:20, where
Christ told his disciples that, after his death, they would weep and lament,
but that “the world” would rejoice. Did everyone in the world (or even every
unbeliever in the world) rejoice after Christ’s death? No; of course not. Relatively
few people on the planet rejoiced after Christ was crucified. It was those in
the world who hated Christ “gratuitously” (and who belonged primarily, if not
exclusively, to the nation of Israel) who can be said to have “rejoiced” after
he was crucified.
Another example of
the term “world” being used figuratively to refer to a relatively small number
of people in the world is John 7:4, where Christ was told to show himself “to
the world.” Although Christ was being told to show himself to people (and not to trees, hills or empty
space), it was clearly not every person
in the world to whom Christ was being told to show himself. Similarly, in
John 8:26 Christ said that he’d declared “to the world” what he’d heard from
the Father. And in 18:20 Christ said that he’d “with
boldness spoken to the world” (which Christ went on to explain as
meaning that he’d always taught “in a synagogue and in
the sanctuary where all the Jews are coming together…”). For more
examples of where the term kosmos clearly refers to far less than the total
human population on earth, see John 12:19, 14:19, 22, 15:19 and 17:14.
Based on the above
verses, it’s evident that, when the term “world” refers to people within the
realm of human society, it is not necessarily referring to every person in the
world without exception (or even most people in the world). Instead, it’s referring to some category of
people within the world. And since different people can be in view
depending on the context, we should always ask ourselves which people (or which
category of people) may or may not be in view, and look to the context to
help us answer this question.
“Taking away the sin of the world”
With these
preliminary considerations concerning the term “world” out of the way, let’s
now consider John 1:29: “On the morrow he [John
the baptist] is observing Jesus coming toward him, and
is saying, “Lo! the Lamb of God Which is taking away the sin of the world!”” What
did John mean by the term “world” in this statement? Since it’s unlikely that
John was referring to the realm of human society itself, we can understand him
to have been affirming the fact that Christ
would be taking away the sin of a category of people existing within the realm
of human society. But which category of people did John have in mind? Those
who think John the Baptist was affirming the truth of universal salvation here assume
that he believed that every person in the world who had ever lived (or ever
will live) will be saved by Christ. However, we can’t just assume that John believed
this. And even if John did affirm the
truth of universal salvation (or at least hoped that it might be true), we
can’t just assume that it was John’s intention to express this belief at this
time, when he saw Jesus coming toward him on that day. But if it wasn’t John’s
intention to express the idea that every person in the world was going to be
saved by Christ, then which category of people in the world did John have in
mind here?
I think
we’re given a clue as to which category of people within the realm of human
society John had in mind in John 1:6-7 (where we’re told what John’s mission
involved): “There came to be a man, commissioned by God. His name is John. This
one came for a testimony, that he should be testifying concerning the light, that all should be believing through
it.” To whom did John testify about the light
(i.e., Christ) during his preparatory ministry? Did John testify to every human
being on the earth? Did God, through the ministry of John, give every person
who had ever lived an opportunity to believe in Christ? No. John went on to
specify which category of people his “all” referred to. In v. 31 we read, “But that [Christ] may be
manifested to Israel, therefore I came, baptizing in water.”
John’s ministry was
limited to the people of Israel. It was to the people of Israel that John
testified about the coming Messiah, that “all [i.e., all the people of Israel] should be believing through it.” But did
John believe that everyone in Israel would,
in fact, believe in Christ? And did John believe that every Israelite in his
day would be receiving the salvation
that he had in view in John 1:29? To better understand which category of people in the world John the
baptist believed would have their sin taken away by Christ, let’s consider
Jesus’ words in John 6:33 and 51:
“…for the
Bread of God is He Who is descending out of heaven and giving life to the world.”
“If anyone
should be eating of this Bread, he shall
be living for the eon. Now the Bread also, which I shall be giving for the sake of the life of the world, is
My flesh.”
In light of the
words, “he shall be living for the eon,” the
“life” which Christ had in view in these verses (i.e., the life which he would
be giving “to the world”) should be understood as the future blessing which is
elsewhere referred to as “life eonian.” This is clear not only from the
immediate context in which these verses appear (see the references to eonian
life in John 6:27, 40, 47, 54 and 68), but also from the broader context of
John’s Account as well. Consider, for example, John 3:14-18:
“And, according as Moses exalts the
serpent in the wilderness, thus must the Son of Mankind be exalted, that everyone believing on Him should not
be perishing, but may be having life eonian. For thus God loves the world, so that He gives His only-begotten Son,
that everyone who is believing in Him should not be perishing, but may be
having life eonian. For God does not dispatch His Son into the world that
He should be judging the world, but that
the world may be saved through Him. He who is believing in Him is not being
judged; yet he who is not believing has been judged already, for he has not
believed in the name of the only-begotten Son of God.”
In this passage we
see that God’s love for the world is expressed through the giving of his
only-begotten Son, with the express
purpose being ”that everyone who
is believing in Him should not be perishing, but may be having life eonian.”
It should be noted that, in
this passage, God’s love for the world is not connected with his intent to save all
mankind (even though this is his
ultimate purpose, as we find revealed in Paul’s letters). Rather, in this
passage, God’s love for the world is connected with his intent to save “everyone who is believing in [his Son].” These words
presuppose that not everyone in the world would,
in fact, believe in Christ and receive “life eonian.” Instead, the clear
implication is that unbelievers will “be perishing.”
Concerning the nature
of this “perishing,” Christ declared in John 8:51: “Verily,
verily, I am saying to you, If anyone should be keeping My word, he should
under no circumstances be beholding death for the eon.” And in John
10:27-28 we read, “My sheep are hearing My voice, and
I know them, and they are following Me. And
I am giving them life eonian, and they should by no means be perishing for the
eon…”
The “perishing” that Christ
had in view in John 3:16 should, therefore, be understood as being concurrent
with the “life eonian” he had in view. Moreover, it’s also clear that the
salvation that is in view in the words “that the world may be saved through Him”
is the receiving of “life eonian” (and the avoidance of “perishing for the eon”).
That is, the meaning of these words can be expressed as follows: “…that the
world may be having life eonian through Him.”
In light of the fact
that the “life” which Christ declared he would be “giving to the world” is life
eonian, let’s now compare Christ’s words in John 6:33 with the words of John
the Baptist in John 1:29:
“…for the
Bread of God is He Who is descending out of heaven and giving life to the world.”
“Lo! the
Lamb of God Which is taking away the sin
of the world!”
Since the words “giving life to the world” refer to Christ’s giving life
eonian to those in the world who are
believing in him, we can reasonably conclude that the words “taking away the sin of the world” refer to Christ’s
taking away the sin of those in the
world who are believing in him. John the Baptist was not, in other words,
referring to the salvation of every person on the planet without exception, or
to everyone who will ever live. The “sin of the world” that John believed would
be taken away by Christ is the sin of everyone in the world (particularly those
in Israel, on whom John’s ministry was focused) who believe in Christ. It is
these who, because of their faith in Christ, will “be
having life eonian” (as opposed to “perishing for the eon”).
This understanding of
John’s words in 1:29 is further confirmed by what John the Baptist declared
elsewhere. From what we read in Matthew 3:1-12, it’s clear that the focus of John’s preparatory ministry was on the
eon-terminating events that will usher in the kingdom of God on earth (and the
eonian state of affairs resulting from these events). It was with a view toward
the coming kingdom that John admonished the Israelites of his day to repent, in
order that they might make themselves ready for it. This future eschatological
event will involve the “weeding out” of unrighteous
Israelites from the land, and the salvation of the righteous. According to John,
the righteous among God’s covenant people were to be baptized by Christ “in the
holy spirit” and gathered like grain “into his barn.” It is these whom John understood would be
saved by Christ, the Lamb of God. The rest, however, are to be baptized “in
fire,” and – like chaff – are to be burned up by Christ “with unextinguishable
fire.” Given the repentance-based focus of John the Baptist’s preparatory
ministry, I submit that it’s far more likely that John believed that “the sin
of the world” that Christ would be taking away was the sin of those in the
world who, through faith in Christ, were being given “the right to become
children of God.”
For part two of this
study, click here: https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2019/08/did-john-reveal-truth-of-salvation-of_17.html
[1] Although most translations of this verse read, “the Lord will
not cast off forever,” a more accurate translation would be, “For Yahweh is not casting
off for the eon” (as found in the Concordant Version of the Old Testament).
When we try to apply this verse to every person who has ever lived or will
live, it becomes a false statement (for not all humans – or even all Israelites
– will be enjoying God’s favor and blessings during the eon to come).
[2] The only way Acts 3:21 could be understood as supporting the
doctrine of the salvation of all is if the “holy prophets” referred to by Peter
actually prophesied concerning this truth. But that’s the very thing that needs
to be proved by those appealing to Acts 3:21 in support of the doctrine of
universal salvation.
[3] For those not familiar with the scriptural subject of the
eons, the following summary may be helpful: The eons are relatively long spans of
time (past, present and future) which have a beginning and an end. We read, for
example, of past eons (Romans 16:25; 1 Corinthians 2:7; 10:11;
Ephesians 3:9; Col 1:26, Hebrews 9:26), of a present eon (Matthew
12:32; 13:40; 24:3; 1 Corinthians 2:6-8; Galatians 1:4), and of future
eons to follow this present eon (Mark 10:30; Matthew 12:32; 13:40; 24:3;
Luke 18:30; Ephesians 1:21; 2:7; Jude 1:25). It’s also clear from what is said
concerning the past eons that they are limited in number, for we read that
there was a time before the eons began (1 Corinthians 2:7; 2
Timothy 1:9; Titus 1:2). We also read of the consummation of the
eons (1 Corinthians 10:11; Hebrews 9:26), which indicates that the
succession of eons revealed in scripture has an end as well as a beginning.
This is further confirmed from the fact that the future eons referred to (e.g.,
in Ephesians 2:7) are the eons for which Christ will be reigning. And – as
argued elsewhere (see, for example, my article on the expression
“forever and ever” and the follow-up
article)
– we know that Christ’s reign is not going to continue endlessly, but will
terminate when he has accomplished all that his God and Father has appointed
and empowered him to do.
[4] Although what’s being promised in Rev. 21:5 is
certainly consistent with the truth
of the reconciliation of all to God (and could even be understood as “pointing
toward” this truth), it’s not necessary to believe that John – or the original
recipients of his prophetic work – understood the “all” to include anything
that won’t be in existence when the last eon of Christ’s reign begins.
