Wednesday, October 18, 2017

A Study on Revelation 12: Part One (A summary of my position and a critique of the “constellation view”)

In this five-part study I will be defending the following interpretation of the imagery found in Rev. 12:

1. The “woman clothed with the sun” figuratively represents faithful Israel – i.e., the collective entity referred to by Paul as the “Israel of God” (Gal. 6:16). Depending on the time period and generation in view, the woman that is faithful Israel has been (and will be) comprised of different individuals. For example, those individuals who constituted the Israel of God in Paul’s day are not the same individuals who will constitute the Israel of God during the 70th heptad/day of the Lord.

2. After the snatching away of the “male child” toward God and toward his throne, the company of faithful Israelites whom the sun-clothed woman represents will consist of the 144,000 sealed and “firstfruit” Israelites referred to by John in Rev. 7:3-8 and 14:1-5. Therefore, when the sun-clothed woman is described by John as fleeing into the wilderness and being nourished for 1,260 days, she represents this particular group of faithful Israelites.

3. The seven-headed, fiery-red dragon figuratively represents the hierarchy of wicked celestial rulers (or “chiefs”) of which the one called “Adversary and Satan” is the leader and representative (Rev. 12:9).

4. The “male child” whom the sun-clothed woman (faithful Israel) is said to “bring forth” – and whom the dragon is described as seeking to devour - figuratively represents that corporate group of saints referred to by Paul as “the body of Christ” and “the ecclesia which is [Christ’s] body,” of which Christ himself is the Head (1 Cor. 12:12-13, 27; Eph. 1:22-23).

Before I begin my remarks on the content of Revelation 12 and my defense of the position summarized above, I need to express my gratitude and indebtedness to fellow brother in Christ, Andre Piet. I have been a regular reader of his blog, GoedBericht.nl, for a few years now, and have gained many valuable insights from his articles. Andre’s blog entries on the identity of the "male child" of Rev. 12:5[1] have had a significant influence on what I’ve come to believe on this particular subject. Although I differ with Andre on a few minor points concerning the interpretation of Rev. 12 (including the issue of the timing of the snatching away in relation to the 70th heptad), I agree with him concerning the overall interpretation of this chapter, and will be quoting from his blog articles on several occasions. Although Andre was not the first to hold to the particular view concerning the male child that he defends on his blog (it’s at least as old as the “pioneer of dispensationalism” himself, John Nelson Darby), I credit Andre as the one who first introduced me to it and motivated me to research it further.

With these preliminary remarks out of the way, I’ll begin my analysis of Rev. 12 with verse 1.

Revelation 12
1 And a great sign was seen in heaven: a woman clothed with the sun, and the moon underneath her feet, and on her head a wreath of twelve stars. 2 And being pregnant, she is crying, travailing and tormented to be bringing forth.

A Critique of the Constellation View

According to some, the sun-clothed woman that John saw should be understood as a particular zodiac constellation (i.e., Virgo) that appeared in conjunction with other celestial objects and astronomical events on September 23rd, 2017. All arguments for and against this interpretation aside, I must confess that it has never struck me as the obvious or primary meaning of the “great sign in heaven” that John saw. The woman-as-constellation theory would be, at best, a secondary (and very much inferred) interpretation of the text. At the most, I believe that one could, perhaps, say that the astronomical event that occurred on 9/23/17 should be understood as pointing us back to the symbolism of Rev. 12, and (possibly) indicating that the fulfillment of what is being symbolized in Rev. 12 was (or is) soon to take place (whatever one takes “soon” to mean).

But even this could, I believe, be too generous a response to the constellation theory. It could, in its entirety, be an erroneous and illegitimate application of the scriptural data. There are several considerations that have made me doubtful as to the validity of the theory. Among these is the fact that there doesn’t seem to be any meaningful sense in which it can be said that the sun “clothed” the constellation Virgo on 9/23/17. In every image I’ve seen, the sun was over (and not even touching) Virgo’s “left shoulder” rather than being somewhere over her “body” (a peculiar way of being “clothed,” to be sure).

Another problem with the theory concerns the twelve stars that John saw as comprising the woman’s “crown” (or “wreath”). According to proponents of the constellation theory, the stars of which the woman’s wreath consists are the nine stars that constitute the constellation Leo in conjunction with the planets Venus, Mars and Mercury. However, if the woman of Revelation 12 is to be interpreted as being a literal zodiac constellation (i.e., Virgo), it doesn’t make any sense for another zodiac constellation (i.e., Leo) to be the woman’s “wreath” (and the theory becomes even more bizarre when we take into account the claim that Leo is merely part of the woman’s wreath). As strange as it would sound, it would at least be more consistent with the constellation theory for John to have seen and described a sun-clothed woman with a lion sitting on (or, perhaps, lying next to?) her head. Why would one zodiac constellation appear as the woman associated with it, while another zodiac constellation (which is just as conventionally associated with a lion as the constellation Virgo is associated with a woman) be seen and described as a “crown” or “wreath” on the woman’s head?

What’s even more problematic for the “Leo-as-wreath” aspect of the constellation theory is the fact that there are, apparently, already twelve stars that can be understood as comprising the “wreath” of Virgo. In chapter six of his book The Star of Bethlehem, Ernest Martin remarks as follows: “And note: Professor Thorley who reviewed the first edition of my work has shown that there are exactly twelve stars surrounding the head of Virgo as we see them from earth. And indeed there are. If one will look at Norton’s Star Atlas, twelve visible stars will be seen around Virgo’s head. They are (according to astronomical terminology): (1) Pi, (2) Nu, (3) Beta (near the ecliptic), (4) Sigma, (5) Chi, (6) Iota — these six stars form the southern hemisphere around the head of Virgo. Then there are (7) Theta, (8) Star 60, (9) Delta, (10) Star 93, (11) Beta (the 2nd magnitude star) and (12) Omicron — these last six form the northern hemisphere around the head of Virgo. All these stars are visible and could have been witnessed by observers on earth.”

Thus, assuming that the constellation Virgo is even in view in Rev. 12:1, there is simply no need for the constellation Leo - in conjunction with an alignment of three planets – to form the “wreath” of twelve stars on her “head.” Whatever significance the astronomical event involving Leo and the three planets may (or may not) have had in September, I see no good reason to force it into the imagery described in Rev. 12:1. And yet, it does seem that it was forced into the imagery by proponents of the constellation theory. And it seems that the only reason it was done so was to make the astronomical event seem more “rare,” and thus of greater significance and more likely to be something that could be understood as fulfilling prophecy. However, to my knowledge, God has never revealed in scripture that the “rareness” of an event (whether it occurs on earth or in the heavens) necessarily, and without qualification, gives it some sort of prophetic significance. And the fact that nothing happens randomly or coincidentally in our universe doesn’t mean that God necessarily intends for us to know what the exact significance or meaning of a certain event is. Apart from its having been revealed to us by God in scripture, we cannot simply assume that the significance or meaning we have assigned to some naturally-occurring event (like the astronomical occurrences of September) is, in fact, correct.

These aren’t the only problems involved in the woman-as-constellation interpretation, [2] but it was these, in particular, that initially led me to doubt the validity of this interpretation. However, my main issue with the constellation theory lies in how it has been presented by some proponents of the theory. According to its most outspoken proponents, the constellation view is not just a secondary, possible interpretation of Rev. 12 (or at least the first few verses of this chapter); rather, it’s viewed as the “key” to understanding the meaning of the passage itself. The verses involving the sun-clothed woman, the dragon and her child are understood as being entirely, or primarily, about (and as pointing the reader to) a certain astronomical event that took place on 9/23/17, and which involved certain constellations and the movement/positions of other celestial objects. However, this interpretation of the imagery described by John in the first few verses of Rev. 12 just doesn’t seem to fit with the passage as a whole.

Few would deny that the various entities that John described as seeing in Rev. 12 are meant to be understood as representing something else (and thus to be symbols). But I think consistency is important in coming to a right understanding of things even of a symbolic nature. And this is precisely where the constellation view – as has been typically presented by those holding to it – breaks down. It simply fails to hold up as part of a broader and more consistent interpretation of the whole passage. If the sun-clothed woman is to be understood as being a particular constellation appearing at a certain future time, then what about the other entities and events described as taking place? It seems that as soon as we start incorporating the rest of the entities and events described by John, the constellation interpretation necessarily fades into the background (or vanishes altogether), and a more primary and consistent meaning of the symbols takes precedence in order to even make sense of what John is describing.

For example, when the same sun-clothed woman described in v. 1 is later described as being given “two wings of a large vulture” and flying into the wilderness to be protected from the dragon and nourished for "a season, and seasons and half a season" (v. 14), is she still to be understood as a constellation? And if there’s something else being symbolized here, then wouldn’t consistency demand that what was in view in v. 1 was not, in fact, a constellation (or at least, that it’s not the primary meaning of what John saw)? After all, the same sun-clothed woman who is described as fleeing into the wilderness is the woman who is previously described as bringing forth a male child. Considerations like this lead me to doubt that the constellation interpretation should be seen as the “key” to understanding Rev. 12 (again, assuming it has any validity at all).

In an article entitled, “Why the Revelation 12 Sign Can’t be Debunked,” one proponent of the woman-as-constellation theory writes, “The author of Revelation 12:1-2 describes an actual celestial event. He doesn't use similes. He doesn't call it a parable. He describes the Sun, Moon, and stars, which are real objects in space. There is nothing in the text that states the description is not to be taken literally.”[3] As a staunch proponent of the literal-historical-grammatical method of scripture interpretation, I’m all for understanding something literally, if possible. However, it is (ironically) this very interpretive principle that has led me to reject the constellation view affirmed by the author of this article.

The simple fact is that no grouping of stars – including that which is conventionally identified as “Virgo” – is literally anything other than a grouping of stars. The zodiacal constellation “Virgo” is not literally a woman (and, strictly speaking, it does not even resemble an actual woman). Nor does any constellation literally have “feet” or a “head.” The constellation Virgo is a grouping of stars that is conventionally understood to represent an imaginary woman. So right off the bat we run into a problem with the assertion of the author quoted above that there is “nothing in the text that states the description is not to be taken literally.” Even if we allowed that a constellation could literally be referred to as having a “head” or “feet,” there is no way that what we read in v. 2 could be literally applied to any actual collection of stars.  

Just as John later saw what appeared to be a woman riding a frightening beast in Rev. 17, in Rev. 12:1-2 John was clearly viewing what appeared to him to be a woman in labor, and not merely a collection of stars. In fact, based on John’s description alone, the only thing he saw that even appeared to him to be actual stars are those that were seen to constitute the “wreath” on her head! There is no indication whatsoever that the woman herself appeared to consist of stars, or to be a constellation. Thus, while it’s technically true that “there is nothing in the text that states the description is not to be taken literally” (but when is this EVER “stated” in scripture?), one can reasonably infer that the text shouldn’t be taken literally. Verse 2 (and the rest of the chapter) puts a contextual limitation on how v. 1 can, and should, be interpreted.

When we allow v. 2 to inform our understanding of what John described as seeing in v. 1, I think we can reasonably conclude that John was NOT seeing and describing a literal celestial event involving a particular positioning of literal celestial objects in space. The sun, moon and stars seen by John are, I believe, to be understood no more literally than the sun, moon and stars that we’re told Joseph saw in a dream (Gen. 37:9). The woman is not to be identified with a constellation; regardless of how realistic the woman may or may not have appeared to John, what John saw was nonetheless the image of an woman and not merely a literal constellation of stars (again, the only stars seen in John’s vision are those that constituted the wreath of the woman). And it’s equally reasonable to conclude that the woman that John saw was not a literal woman (since no literal woman can be “clothed with the sun,” have “the moon underneath her feet,” etc.). So we can conclude that the “woman” John saw was neither a constellation nor a literal woman. This means that the sun-clothed woman that John saw should be understood as a symbolic representation of something else. But what is the woman to be understood as representing?

Part Two: http://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2017/10/a-study-on-revelation-12-part-two.html




[2] Another problem involves the claim that the planet Jupiter was in the “womb” of Virgo for a normal gestation period of nine months before being “birthed” and leaving the constellation. In the following video, Joel Richardson challenges this and other claims (it’s at around the 29 minute mark that Richardson begins discussing the subject of Jupiter).

Wednesday, September 27, 2017

Concerning the Meaning and Application of the Word Translated “Pardon” in the Concordant Literal New Testament

According to A.E. Knoch (and those students of Scripture who have adopted his view on this subject), the word aphesis (“pardon” or “forgiveness”) and the word dikaiósis (“justification”) have mutually exclusive meanings, and refer to two incompatible states or conditions. According to Knoch, “forgiveness” or “pardon” involves a blessing that is exclusively for saints outside of the body of Christ (e.g., those who constitute the “Israel of God”), while justification is a blessing that is exclusively for the saints in the body of Christ (at least, until the consummation, when all mankind will be justified). Although I do think there is an important difference between the pardon/forgiveness that is for believing Israelites and the justification of those in the body of Christ, I don’t think the difference is found in the inherent meaning of the word translated “pardon” and “forgiveness.”

Knoch seemed to assume that, because a believing Israelite could lose his or her “forgiveness” or “pardon” through unfaithfulness, the word aphesis must inherently refer to “a temporary respite which may be forfeited or withdrawn” (see, for example, Knoch’s remarks on Acts 13:38 on page 200 of his Concordant Commentary on the New Testament). Similarly, on pages 257-258 of The First Idiot in Heaven, Martin Zender contrasts pardon/forgiveness with justification by stating that, unlike justification, “pardon can be revoked” and “withdrawn,” and that its permanence “depends on the conduct of the one receiving it.”

Although I think there is some truth to what both Knoch and Zender have written concerning the pardon/forgiveness of believing Israelites and the justification of those in the body of Christ, I also think they have erred in seeing “pardon” and “justification” as mutually exclusive in meaning. I also believe that their understanding of “pardon”/“forgiveness” becomes highly problematic when we come to certain verses in which these words are applied to the saints in the body of Christ.

The main verses I have in mind as being especially problematic for the view referred to above are Acts 26:18, Ephesians 1:7 and Colossians 1:14. In each of these verses we find the word aphesis being used (which, again, is the same word used when the “pardon” or “forgiveness” of Israelites is in view). However, it is also clear that the sins and offenses which are said to be “pardoned” or “forgiven” in these verses are those which have been committed by saints in the body of Christ.

Let’s consider Acts 26:18 first (for context I’ll include the three verses preceding it).

Acts 26:15-18
Now the Lord said, “I am Jesus, Whom you are persecuting.But rise and stand on your feet, for I was seen by you for this, to fix upon you before for a deputy and a witness both of what you have perceived and that in which I will be seen by you, extricating you from the people and from the nations, to whom I am commissioning you, to open their eyes, to turn them about from darkness to light and from the authority of Satan to God, for them to get a pardon of sins and an allotment among those who have been hallowed by faith that is in Me.

Notice that the “pardon of sins” is spoken of by Christ as something which would be received by those among the nations who would be saved through Paul’s apostolic ministry (i.e., those destined to be in the body of Christ). Either Christ understood what he was saying and spoke truthfully when he declared these words to Paul, or he didn’t. If he did, then it follows that those to whom Christ commissioned Paul (i.e., the nations) did, in fact, receive the “pardon of sins” by their faith in the evangel which Paul heralded to them. And if that’s the case, then the “pardon of sins” that Christ declared would be received by believing gentiles as a result of Paul’s commission is perfectly consistent with their being justified by faith. Any perceived inconsistency or contradiction must, therefore, be due to a misunderstanding of what “pardon of sins” actually means. In A.E. Knoch’s remarks on Christ’s words here (see page 221 of his commentary), we find no explanation as to how Christ’s use of the word “pardon” in Acts 26:18 can be reconciled with Knoch’s understanding of the meaning of the word “pardon.”

Let’s now consider Paul’s words in Ephesians 1:7 and Colossians 1:14 (as with Acts 26:18, I’ve included some preceding verses for the sake of context):

Ephesians 1:3-8
“Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, Who blesses us with every spiritual blessing among the celestials, in Christ, according as He chooses us in Him before the disruption of the world, we to be holy and flawless in His sight, in love designating us beforehand for the place of a son for Him through Christ Jesus; in accord with the delight of His will, for the laud of the glory of His grace, which graces us in the Beloved: in Whom we are having the deliverance through His blood, the forgiveness of offenses in accord with the riches of His grace, which He lavishes on us; in all wisdom and prudence…”

Colossians 1:12-14
“…at the same time giving thanks to the Father, Who makes you competent for a part of the allotment of the saints, in light, Who rescues us out of the jurisdiction of Darkness, and transports us into the kingdom of the Son of His love, in Whom we are having the deliverance, the pardon of sins…”

What’s interesting is that, in the immediate context of both Eph. 1:7 and Col. 1:14, Paul used two Greek words that were also used by Christ in Acts 26:15-18: the word translated “forgiveness”/“pardon” and the word translated “allotment” (see Col. 1:12 and Eph. 1:18). I strongly doubt that this is a mere coincidence, but I won’t press the issue here. What I do want to emphasize is that Paul used the word aphesis not once but twice in his “later epistles” in reference to the saints in the body of Christ. If the word aphesis really has the meaning that Mr. Knoch and others have claimed that it has, why would Paul so freely use it to refer to the present status of those who are in the body of Christ?

Knoch seems to be aware of there being at least a potential problem with Paul’s use of aphesis in Eph. 1:7, but I’m not entirely sure of what to make of his remarks on this verse. On page 289 of his commentary we read, “’Pardon’ of sins becomes forgiveness when associated with offenses” (emphasis his). It would appear that Knoch interpreted aphesis as meaning something different than “pardon” when associated with the word “offenses” (rather than “sins”) in Eph. 1:7. Elsewhere, however, Paul seemed to use the words interchangeably (see, for example, Romans 5:12-21). So it's at least possible that it was for the sake of emphasis only that Paul used one word rather than the other. And even if one were to argue that not every “sin” is an “offense” (in the scriptural sense of the word), it could still be the case (and, I think, is the case) that every “offense” is a “sin.” 

Thus, for Knoch to try and give aphesis a different shade of meaning in Eph. 1:7 (by translating it “forgiveness” rather than “pardon”) simply because Paul used the word “offenses” rather than “sins” is, I believe, somewhat dubious and unhelpful (it's certainly not as "concordant" as it could've been!). Regardless of whether one wants to translate the word as “forgiveness” or “pardon,” the fact remains that Paul clearly had no problem with using the word aphesis in reference to those in the body of Christ.

Things get a little more complicated (unnecessarily so, I believe) when we come to Knoch’s comments on Colossians 1:13-14. Rather than taking the words of Paul at face-value (and then simply reconsidering the meaning of aphesis in accord with its inspired usage by Christ and Paul), Knoch   working under the assumption that aphesis inherently and necessarily referred to a state that was “temporary” and which could be “withdrawn”  was forced to ascribe a figurative meaning to what Paul wrote. In his commentary on Col. 1:13-14 (see page 303), Knoch remarks as follows: 

“The kingdom of His Son is a figurative allusion to the kingdom of Christ. Messiah’s kingdom is literal and future and destroys and displaces earth’s kingdoms (Dan. 2:44). The kingdom of the Son here spoken of is a present spiritual power. We are not rescued from earth’s governments but from the powers of Darkness which direct and dominate them. The term “pardon” is borrowed from the kingdom phraseology to accord with this figure.”

In other words, Knoch believed that Paul’s use of aphesis in Col. 1:14 was “figurative,” and simply an extension of his “figurative” usage of the word “kingdom” in verse 13. However, it’s simply not the case that, when understood literally, the expression “kingdom of the Son of His love” (along with the expression “kingdom of God,” which refers to the same future kingdom during the eons to come) refers exclusively to Christ’s kingdom on the earth (i.e., the kingdom that we’re told will be restored to Israel). Scripture is clear that, in addition to being on the earth, Christ’s kingdom will be established in the heavens and among the celestials as well (Rev. 12:9-12), thus making the “kingdom of God” a future reality that pertains to the body of Christ just as much as it pertains to Israel (1 Cor. 6:9-10; 15:50; Eph. 5:5; Col. 4:11; 1 Thess. 2:12; 2 Thess. 1:5; 2 Tim. 4:18). For a defense of the view that Paul had in mind the kingdom of God in its celestial location in 1 Cor. 15:50, see the following article: https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2020/03/clearing-up-some-confusion-concerning_7.html.

Since those in the body of Christ will, in fact, be enjoying an allotment in the kingdom of God (which, again, is the “kingdom of the Son of His love” during the eons), there is no reason to believe that Paul had in mind the kingdom of God on earth in Col. 1:13. This means that there's no reason to think that Paul's use of the word aphesis in Col. 1:13 has anything at all to do with Israel or Israel’s “salvation program.” And this fact alone completely undermines Knoch’s reason for ascribing a figurative meaning to Paul’s use of the word “pardon” in v. 14.

The fact is that we have no good reason to think that Paul understood the word aphesis to mean what Knoch understood it to mean. Instead, the meaning of the word aphesis is simply neutral with regards to whether one’s deliverance from the consequences of one’s sins/offenses is to be understood as conditional and “probationary” in nature, or as unconditional and permanent. But if that’s the case, then what is the meaning of the word?

Answer: The word from which aphesis (FROM-LETTING) is derived is aphiemi (FROM-LET). Like aphiemi, the word aphesis expresses the idea of a person’s sins or offenses being “sent away” from them, and of God’s no longer reckoning their sins and offenses to them. Thus, for people’s sins/offenses to be “pardoned” or “forgiven” by God can be understood to mean that God is not reckoning their sins/offenses to them. He is, in other words, relating to them as if they’d never committed them. 

In support of this understanding of what it means to be “pardoned,” consider David’s words in Psalm 32:1-2: 

“Happy he whose transgression is lifted away, whose sin is covered over! Happy the human to whom Yahweh is not reckoning depravity, in whose spirit there is no deceit!”[1] 

When, in Romans 4:7-8, Paul quoted these verses from Psalm 32, he was following the Septuagint (LXX) and translated the Hebrew nâśâ' nâsâh (“lifted away”) with the word aphesis. It’s evident, then, that these verses refer to David’s happiness following the pardoning, or forgiveness, of his transgressions by God. What, exactly, this pardoned status involved is clear from the ideas that David linked together. It involved (1) a person’s transgressions being “lifted away” or “pardoned”; (2) their sin being “covered over”; and (3) Yahweh’s not reckoning depravity to a person.[2]

We find the same general idea expressed by David in Psalm 103:8-14:

Yahweh is merciful and gracious, slow to anger and abounding in steadfast love. He will not always chide, nor will he keep his anger forever.  He does not deal with us according to our sins, nor repay us according to our iniquities. For as high as the heavens are above the earth, so great is his steadfast love toward those who fear him; as far as the east is from the west, so far does he remove our transgressions from us. As a father shows compassion to his children, so the Lord shows compassion to those who fear him. For he knows our frame; he remembers that we are dust.

Psalm 85:2-3 also seems to covey the idea that the pardon of sins involves God’s ceasing to reckon a person’s sins to them, and his ceasing to relate to them as if they had sinned: 

“You forgave the iniquity of your people; you covered all their sin. Selah You withdrew all your indignation; you turned from your hot anger.”

It’s clear from other verses that for God to pardon/forgive someone’s sins involved his “blotting out” their sins from his sight (Neh. 4:5; Ps. 51:1, 9; Jer. 18:23; Isa. 43:25; 44:22; Acts 3:19) and his no longer remembering their sins (Jer. 31:34; Isa. 43:25; Ez. 33:16; Heb. 8:12). And this, I believe, involves nothing less than a deliverance from the negative consequences of one’s sins/offenses (which, as I’ve argued elsewhere, is ultimately death). 

The pardoning or forgiveness of sins has nothing inherently to do with a conditional state or status that can be “revoked” or “withdrawn” based on one’s conduct. The word aphesis does not, in itself, tell us why God is not reckoning one’s sin and offenses to a person, or whether or not there are any conditions that must be met by the one pardoned in order for them to stay pardoned. When used in reference to a believing Israelite (whose salvation is conditional, and depends on their present perseverance in faith and good works), “pardon”/”forgiveness” is a conditional state that's dependent on their own faithful conduct (at least, relatively speaking). However, when used in reference to those in the body of Christ, “pardon” or “forgiveness” is to be understood as unconditional and permanent, and as having nothing to do with our conduct. Our pardon/forgiveness takes place when we believe Paul’s evangel, and (like our justification) is a “once for all time” deal.

When we understand the word aphesis as being inherently “neutral” with regard to the conditional or unconditional nature of a believer’s deliverance from sin’s penalty, it does not need to be understood as being in conflict with the meaning of “justification.” Being pardoned and being justified need not be understood as mutually exclusive states or conditions, but rather as “two sides of the same coin.” As noted earlier, David described the state of those who have been pardoned as one in which God is not “reckoning depravity” to them (Ps. 32:2). 

Moreover, there is indisputable scriptural evidence that justification is just as “neutral” in meaning as is the word “pardon,” and that it can apply to both saints in the body of Christ and to saints outside of the body of Christ (I go into more depth on this subject in my study on justification). Many who see justification and pardon as mutually exclusive terms seem to forget the fact that Paul was not the only inspired author to use the word “justified” when writing to a group of saints! In his letter to the twelve tribes, James used the word three times (2:21, 24, 25). However, the justification he had in view was a declared righteous status that is based on the faith and conduct of those to whom he wrote, and was something that could be lost if one’s conduct ceased to involve the faith and works that are necessary to receiving eonian life in the kingdom of God. In contrast to this, the justification of which Paul wrote is a declared righteous status that is based on the fact that we've been sealed with the holy spirit of God (Rom. 8:9-11, 22-23; 1 Cor. 6:11; Eph. 1:13-14; Titus 3:4-7), and thereby spiritually baptized into the body of Christ (Rom. 6:3-4; 1 Cor. 12:13; Gal. 3:25-29). See the following article for a defense of this understanding: https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2023/11/justified-by-spirit-of-our-god.html.

For one to be “justified” simply means that one has been declared “just” or righteous by God. The word “justification” does not, in itself, tell us why (i.e., on what basis) a person has been declared “just” or righteous by God, or whether or not there are any conditions that must be met in order for someone to stay justified. Like the word “pardoned,” the word “justified” is neutral in this regard. For saints outside of the body of Christ (e.g., those constituting the “Israel of God”), both pardon and justification are conditional blessings that are based on one’s own faith and works (and which can be forfeited and lost if one does not continue to meet the requirements that must be met in order to be saved). 

However, for those in the body of Christ (and, eventually, for all mankind at the consummation), pardon and justification are unconditional blessings based on God's super-abundant grace (and, as such, can never be lost or forfeited). Unlike the present justification of believing Israelites, our justification does not involve our own faith and our own works; rather, our justification is based on the fact that we've been sealed with the holy spirit, and thereby spiritually baptized into Christ's body. And insofar as our “pardon” or “forgiveness” is also based on this fact, it is just as unconditional in nature. The sins and offenses of those in the body of Christ will never (and could never) cease to be pardoned by God; there is nothing we could ever do or not do that could ever result in our sins and offenses being reckoned to us by God.



[1] By referring to a pardoned individual as one “in whose spirit there is no deceit,” David was not claiming to be (or implying that others were) without sin, or absolutely pure and righteous. Rather, he had in mind those who refused to deny or hide their sins, and who honestly confessed their sins to God (see verses 3-5).

[2] Some have argued that the way in which Paul quotes Psalm 32:1-2 in Romans 4:8 conveys a stronger idea than that of “mere” pardon. Paul’s quotation of this verse reads, “Happy they whose lawlessnesses were pardoned and whose sins were covered over! Happy the man to whom the Lord by no means should be reckoning sin!” It is the words “by no means” that some point to as evidence that Paul had in mind something distinct from (and greater than) the idea of “pardon.” However, this presupposes that pardon could never be (or refer to) a permanent state, and thus begs the question against the position for which I’m arguing in this article.

As argued above, the “pardoning” of one’s sins/offenses can be either conditional (and thus possibly lost) or unconditional (and thus permanent in nature). Whether “pardon” is to be understood as conditional or unconditional simply depends on whom it is being pardoned, and the basis on which their pardon rests (the word “pardon” is, in itself, neutral in this regard). The context in which the word appears is, therefore, of the utmost importance in determining the exact nature of the “pardon” in view. Thus, insofar as the words “by no means” in Rom. 4:8 are to be understood as referring to a permanent, unvarying state, it simply follows that the “pardon” that Paul had in view here is not something that he believed could ever be revoked or withdrawn. 

Monday, September 18, 2017

A Study on the Timing of the Snatching Away, Part 5 (Why the Snatching Away Will Most Likely Occur Before Daniel’s 70th Heptad Begins)

In the previous installment of this study, I argued that the time period during which the “beginning of pangs” will be occurring is distinct from, and prior to, the second half of the 70th heptad. I will now demonstrate that this earlier period of time (i.e., when the “beginning of pangs” begin to occur) is within that broader period of time referred to as the “day of the Lord.” As a corollary of this, I will argue that the “beginning of pangs” referred to by Christ is the earliest expression of God’s indignation during the “day of the Lord.”

The Seven-Sealed Scroll

In Revelation 5-6 we read of Christ receiving, and then opening, a scroll given to him by his God and Father (who is described as “Him who is sitting on the throne”). This scroll is described as having writing “in front and on the back,” and as being “sealed up with seven seals.” Moreover, we discover that, besides Christ, “no one in heaven, nor yet on earth, nor yet underneath the earth, was able to open the scroll, neither to look at it” (Rev. 5:3). No one except our Lord Jesus Christ was found worthy of this.

After the breaking of each of the scrolls’ seven seals, we read of a different future event taking place. As has been noted by many students of scripture, there seem to be striking similarities between the various events brought about by the opening of the seven-sealed scroll and the events prophesied by Christ in the Olivet Discourse. For example, we’re told that the breaking of the second seal of the scroll results in peace being taken “from out of the earth,” which is a reference to war (Rev. 6:3-4). This seems to correspond with what Christ declared to his disciples in Matt. 24:6-7: “And you will hear of wars and rumors of wars. See that you are not alarmed, for this must take place, but the end is not yet. For nation will rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom...”

We’re also told that the breaking of the third seal results in famine (6:5-6), and that the breaking of the fourth seal results in people dying from “the blade,” “famine,” “death” and “the wild beasts of the earth” (6:8). This, too, seems to correspond with what Christ declared concerning the “beginning of pangs”: ”Besides, there shall be great quakes and, in places, famines and pestilences.” The quakes to which Christ referred can also be understood as related to the breaking of the third and fourth seals, since earthquakes can, of course, bring about death as well as contribute to food scarcity. The breaking of the sixth seal also implies the occurrence of an earthquake (Rev. 6:12-17). But should the events that will be brought about through Christ’s opening the seven-sealed scroll be understood as expressions of God’s indignation during the day of the Lord? I think there’s very good reason to believe that they should.

First, it was noted in part two of this study that, in Rev. 1:10, the apostle John wrote that he came to be, in spirit, in the Lord's day.” I went on to argue that the expression "the Lord's day" should best be understood as an alternate form of the expression "the day of the Lord," and that John understood it as conveying the same meaning. Understood in this way, John had in mind that future period of time during which God will begin intervening in world affairs to judge the inhabitants of the earth and restore the kingdom to Israel. It was by means of a vision (“in spirit”) that John came to be in this future "day," and saw what was going to take place during this period of time. The implication of this is that all of the prophesied events and judgments that John subsequently describes as leading up to Christ’s return (as well as the events taking place afterword, until the passing away of the present heaven and earth) will be occurring during the (broad) day of the Lord. And this, of course, includes the events associated with the opening of the seven-sealed scroll.

In addition to this fact, I argued in part three that we should understand both the seven bowl-related calamities as well as the seven trumpet-related calamities as expressions of God’s indignation. But if the trumpet and bowls are to be understood as essentially related to God’s indignation during the day of the Lord, then the seventh seal must also be understood as essentially related to God’s indignation. The reason this is so is because (as argued earlier) it is the breaking of the seventh seal which results in the sounding of the seven trumpets (Rev. 8:1-2, 6).

Just as the breaking of the first four seals result in the “four horsemen” that follow, so the breaking of the seventh seal results in the subsequent sounding of the seven trumpets (and in this sense, we could understand the seven trumpet-related calamities as being “contained” within the seventh seal, just as the four horsemen-related events can be understood as being “contained” within the first four seals). And given that the seventh seal must be understood as essentially related to God’s indignation, consistency demands that we view the previous seals as equally related to God’s indignation in some way. That is, just as the breaking of the seventh seal results in a certain manifestation of God’s indignation (i.e., the seven trumpet-related calamities), so we should understand the breaking of the previous six seals as also resulting in (or at least promising) a manifestation of God’s indignation during the day of the Lord.

Seals Five and Six

As is the case with the trumpet-related calamities, the mere fact that the word “indignation” is not explicitly used in reference to a particular seal is in no way an argument against the position that the breaking of the seal is, in some way, related to the expression of God’s indignation (see part three of my study for a more in-depth defense of this particular point with regards to the seven trumpets). However, it’s significant that the word indignation does, in fact, occur in Rev. 6:16-17, as part of the response of those who will be going through the frightening events brought about by the breaking of the sixth seal. Here’s how the events resulting from the opening of the sixth seal are described:

12 And I perceived, when It opens the sixth seal, and a great cataclysm occurred, and the sun became black as sackcloth of hair, and the whole moon became as blood,
13 and the stars of heaven fall on the earth as a fig tree is casting its shriveled figs, quaking under a great wind.
14 And heaven recoils as a scroll rolling up, and every mountain and island was moved out of its place.
15 And the kings of the earth, and the magnates, and the captains, and the rich, and the strong, and every slave and freeman, hide themselves in the caves and in the rocks of the mountains.
16 And they are saying to the mountains and to the rocks, "Fall on us and hide us from the face of Him Who is sitting on the throne, and from the indignation of the Lambkin,
17 for the great day of Their indignation came, and who is able to stand?"


It should be noted that the same word translated “came” in v. 17 is consistently used by John to refer to either a time that has already arrived (Rev. 11:18; 14:7; 14:15; 19:7) or a time which arrived at some point in the past (Rev. 18:10). So it can be reasonably concluded that God’s indignation is, in fact, being expressed through the event(s) that follow the opening of the sixth seal. But what about the fifth seal?

In Rev. 6:9-11 we read, And when It opens the fifth seal, I perceived underneath the altar the souls of those who have been slain because of the word of God and because of the testimony which they had. And they cry with a loud voice, saying, "Till when, O Owner, holy and true, art Thou not judging and avenging our blood on those dwelling on the earth?" And to each of them was given a white robe, and it was declared to them that they should be resting still a little time, till their number should be completed by their fellow slaves also, and their brethren, who are about to be killed even as they were.”

Rather than resulting in a particular expression of God’s indignation, the opening of the fifth seal reveals why further expressions of God’s indignation are necessary. At this point during the day of the Lord, there will be saints who will have been slain because of their faith in Christ. These martyred saints are figuratively represented as asking how long it will be until they are avenged by God. It’s then revealed that more saints are about to be killed “even as they were,” and implied that the avenging of the saints represented as crying out for justice will not take place (at least, not in full) until after the full number of saints have been killed.

Earlier I argued that, during the first half of the 70th week, Jewish believers will be persecuted and killed by both unbelieving gentiles and unbelieving Jews. It’s possible that this is the category of saints who are represented in John’s vision as crying out for justice, and that those saints who we’re told “are about to be killed” are those who will be martyred during the second half of the 70th heptad (i.e., during the time of great affliction). In any case, the vision that results from the opening of the fifth seal seems to point forward to a time of continued (and possibly intensified) martyrdom for the saints, and thus provides the reader with reason to expect further – and more severe – calamities to come upon “those dwelling on the earth,” until every saint who is to be killed during this time has been avenged by God.

The First Four Seals

Perhaps one of the most compelling pieces of evidence confirming the inseparable relationship that the seven seals have to God’s indignation is found in Rev. 6:7-8. There, the breaking of the fourth seal (and its devastating results) is described as follows: And when It opens the fourth seal, I hear the voice of the fourth animal saying, ‘Come!’ And I perceived, and lo! a greenish horse, and the name of him who is sitting upon it is Death, and the Unseen followed him. And jurisdiction was given them over the fourth of the earth, to kill with the blade and with famine and with death and by the wild beasts of the earth.

When we read that “jurisdiction” was given Death and the Unseen, the question naturally arises:  “From whom does this “jurisdiction” come?” The answer to this question is clear: ultimately, it comes from God himself (i.e., the one sitting on the throne, and who gives Christ the seven-sealed scroll to open). But what needs to be emphasized here is that the instrumental means through which “a fourth of the earth” is to be killed as a result of Christ’s breaking the fourth seal are the exact same means that God used in the past when bringing judgment against unfaithful Israel and “pouring out his fury” on them. In Ezekiel 5:12-13, 15-17 we read the following sobering words (spoken by God to the people of Jerusalem):

A third part of you shall die of pestilence and be consumed with famine in your midst; a third part shall fall by the sword all around you; and a third part I will scatter to all the winds and will unsheathe the sword after them. Thus shall my anger spend itself, and I will vent my fury upon them and satisfy myself. And they shall know that I am Yahweh—that I have spoken in my jealousy—when I spend my fury upon them

“…You shall be a reproach and a taunt, a warning and a horror, to the nations all around you, when I execute judgments on you in anger and fury, and with furious rebukes—I am Yahweh; I have spoken—when I send against you the deadly arrows of famine, arrows for destruction, which I will send to destroy you, and when I bring more and more famine upon you and break your supply of bread. I will send famine and wild beasts against you, and they will rob you of your children. Pestilence and blood shall pass through you, and I will bring the sword upon you. I am Yahweh; I have spoken.”

Similarly, in Ezekiel 14:21 we read: “For thus says the Lord God: How much more when I send upon Jerusalem my four disastrous acts of judgment, sword, famine, wild beasts, and pestilence, to cut off from it man and beast!” [Note: With regards to the use of “death” instead of “pestilence” in Rev. 6:8, it’s likely that this is simply an example of the figure of speech “metonymy.” A.E. Knoch also notes in his commentary that, whenever “famine” and “plague” are joined together in the Hebrew Scriptures (see 1 Ki. 8:37, 2 Chr. 20:9, Jer. 21:7, 9; 24:10; 44:13; Ez. 6:11; 7:15) the LXX translation replaces “plague” with “death.” It’s thus not surprising that John would do the same in Rev. 6:8.]

These same four figures are prophesied as expressions of God’s wrath in several other passages as well (cf. Lev 26:21-28; Numb 11:33; 16:46; 25:8-11; Deut 11:17; 28:20-26; 32:22-25; Jer. 15:1-9; 16:4-11; 19:7-9; Ezek 6:11-12; 7:3-15). The fact that it is by means of these exact “disastrous acts of judgment” from God that a fourth of the earth will be killed after the fourth seal is broken by Christ strongly implies that the result of the breaking of the fourth seal will be an expression of God’s indignation.  

As far as the three preceding seals and their corresponding “horsemen,” little needs to be said at this point. Insofar as the events associated with the opening of the second and third seals can easily be understood as preliminary to the widespread death and devastation which results from the opening of the fourth seal, they, too, can be understood as expressions of God’s indignation. In any event, seals two and three are clearly associated with events that involve human suffering and hardship (i.e., world war and scarcity of food/inflation), and as such can be reasonably understood as two early expressions of God’s indignation during the day of the Lord (when “pangs” will just be beginning).

With regards to the opening of the first seal, we’re told that it will unleash a rider on a white horse. This rider is said to have a bow, to be given a wreath, and to come forth “conquering and that he should be conquering.” Many students of scripture have understood (rightly, I believe) the first horseman to represent the coming wicked world ruler whom Paul referred to as “the man of lawlessness” (2 Thess. 2:4), and whom John referred to as “the wild beast” (Rev. 11:7; 13). If this is the case, it is significant that John twice referred to this future world ruler as engaged in “conquering.” In Rev. 11:7 we read that the wild beast will be “doing battle with [the two witnesses] and will be conquering them and killing them.” And in Rev. 13 we read that the wild beast will be “given authority to do what it wills forty-two months,” and that it will be “given to do battle with the saints and to conquer them” (Rev. 13:4-7). In light of this fact, it would be highly appropriate for this wicked ruler to be first described as coming forth “conquering and that he should be conquering.”

Given that the “horseman” associated with the first seal likely represents the man of lawlessness, the opening of this seal can be understood as bringing about his rise to power, and his emergence on to the world scene as an influential political leader (and, for unbelieving Israel, as a possible Messiah figure). Given the likelihood that it is his actions as a world leader that will, whether directly or indirectly, lead to the calamities associated with the subsequent seals (among other evils that will unfold during the final years of this eon, including widespread deception), the opening of the first seal can also be easily understood as an expression of God’s indignation.

We can, therefore, reasonably conclude that the breaking of the seven seals involves, in some way or another, the expression of God’s indignation against the inhabitants of the earth, and that this indignation continues with the more severe trumpet-related calamities and concludes with the even more severe bowl-related calamities. The judgments related to the seals, trumpets and bowls are clearly sequential and progressive, and simply intensify as they are unleashed upon earth’s inhabitants. And given the reasonable inference that the seal-related judgments are to be unleashed on the earth during the first half of the 70th heptad, it can be reasonably concluded that the day of the Lord encompasses the entire 70th heptad, and will be characterized by God’s indignation (which, again, will be expressed through increasingly more severe calamities as time progresses).

“Now whenever they may be saying ‘Peace and security’”

That the day of the Lord will begin when the judgments associated with the seven-sealed scroll commence is, I believe, further confirmed by what Paul wrote in 1 Thess. 5:1-3. In v. 3 we read that the day of the Lord will begin when people are saying, “Peace and security!” In other words, they will see peace and security as characterizing their present state of affairs, and it is for this reason that the “extermination” which “they may by no means escape” will be “standing by them unawares.” This being the case, it follows that the time of peace which unbelievers will see as characterizing the world when the day of the Lord begins will most likely be before the opening of the second seal (when peace will be taken from out of the earth), and before the fulfillment of Christ’s words in Matthew 24:6-7 (in which we’re told that nation will be roused against nation and kingdom against kingdom).

Consider also the imagery that Paul used to describe the devastating judgments that will commence with the coming of the day of the Lord. Paul likened the “extermination” that will be standing by people “unawares” at the start of the day of the Lord as a pang over the pregnant (1 Thess. 5:2-3). Similar “birth pang” imagery is found in Isa. 13:6-9 and Jer. 30:6-7, and was, of course, also used by Christ in his Olivet Discourse when describing some of the earliest events that will be taking place during the final years of this eon. Moreover, although most translations have “labor pains” (plural) in 1 Thess. 5:3, Paul actually used the singular “pang.” Paul was not referring to labor pains in general or collectively, but rather to the first labor pang experienced by a pregnant woman. It is this labor pang which, by virtue of its being the first, comes most unexpectantly (it also foretells even more pangs to come, which will become increasingly more intense until the baby is finally born).

It is, therefore, reasonable to infer that Paul had in mind the same general period of time as Christ did when he referred to the “beginning of pangs.” If this is the case, then Paul understood the day of the Lord to include the first half of the 70th heptad, when the “pangs” would begin (and which correspond with the opening of the first four seals of the seven-sealed scroll). This, again, would place the beginning of the day of the Lord – when the “pangs” of which Christ spoke begin – no later than the earliest part of the time period described by Christ in his Olivet Discourse.

The Unveiling of the Man of Lawlessness

Based on the conclusions we’ve reached so far, it would be reasonable to understand the opening of the first seal as resulting in the event that Paul had in mind in 2 Thess. 2:4 (i.e., the unveiling of the man of lawlessness). But how will the man of lawlessness be unveiled? In part three of my study on the snatching away, I suggested that this could be at the midpoint of the 70th heptad, when the man of lawless sits down in the temple as if he were God. However, I’ve since reconsidered this scenario as being the best interpretation of what Paul wrote here. Given the plausibility that the events brought about by the breaking of the seven-sealed scroll will occur during the first 3½ years of the 70th heptad, it’s more likely that the unveiling of the man of lawlessness will involve some earlier prophetic event.

If this is the case, then what Paul wrote in 2 Thess. 2:4 shouldn’t be understood as indicating when the man of lawlessness is unveiled; rather, the information found in this verse was simply intended by Paul to further explain who, exactly, the “man of lawlessness” is. Paul most likely referred to this event simply because it was of greater prophetic prominence/emphasis in scripture, and would make the particular person he had in view more easily identifiable to his readers (both in a prophetic sense, and by more clearly highlighting his lawless nature). But if this “mid-70th -week” event is not what Paul had in mind when he referred to the man of lawlessness as being “unveiled,” then what did Paul perhaps have in mind?

One possibility that I think deserves some consideration is that the unveiling of the man of lawlessness will take place when the first prophesied event concerning him is fulfilled (or when the prophecies concerning him begin to be fulfilled). If that’s the case, then there’s one prophecy in particular that comes to mind as possibly marking the unveiling of the man of lawlessness (or the beginning of his unveiling). In Daniel 9:27, we read that a “prince” or “governor” who is to come (and whose “coming” will correspond with Jerusalem and the temple being “laid in ruins”) will make or confirm a seven-year covenant “with many” (or, as the Concordant Version has it, this future ruler will become “master of a covenant with many for one seven”). It’s possible that the fulfilling of this prophetic event involving the man of lawlessness will constitute his unveiling (or the beginning of his unveiling). Although there is not as much scriptural emphasis on this event as there is on the actions of the man of lawlessness at the midpoint of the 70th heptad (which could be why Paul didn’t refer to it), it nevertheless remains of great prophetic significance.