Saturday, January 13, 2024

Romans 3:25-26 Reconsidered

Back in 2019 I posted a two-part article in which I presented what was, at that time, my understanding of Romans 3:21-26. Since that time, however, I’ve come to a different understanding of Paul’s words in verses 25-26. Thus, in this article I’ll be sharing the revised (and, I hope, more accurate) view to which I now hold concerning the meaning of these verses.


Here’s how Romans 3:21-26 reads in Young’s Literal Translation:


And now apart from law hath the righteousness of God been manifested, testified to by the law and the prophets, and the righteousness of God is through the faith of Jesus Christ to all, and upon all those believing, -- for there is no difference, for all did sin, and are come short of the glory of God – being declared righteous freely by His grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God did set forth a mercy seat, through the faith in his blood, for the showing forth of His righteousness, because of the passing over of the bygone sins in the forbearance of God – for the showing forth of His righteousness in the present time, for His being righteous, and declaring him righteous who is of the faith of Jesus.


And here’s how verses 24-26 read in the Concordant Literal New Testament:


Being justified gratuitously in His grace, through the deliverance which is in Christ Jesus (Whom God purposed for a Propitiatory shelter, through faith in His blood, for a display of His righteousness because of the passing over of the penalties of sins which occurred before in the forbearance of God), toward the display of His righteousness in the current era, for Him to be just and a Justifier of the one who is of the faith of Jesus.


The term translated “mercy seat” and “Propitiatory shelter” in v. 25 is hilasterion. The only other occurrence of this term in the Greek Scriptures is in Hebrews 9:5. In this verse, the term denotes the literal plate of pure gold that formed the lid of Israel’s “Ark of the Covenant.” The Hebrew term of which hilasterion is a translation is the term kapporeth, and is usually translated “mercy seat” in most Bibles. In addition to its use in Hebrews 9:5, the term hilasterion occurs sixteen times in the Septuagint (Ex. 25:17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22; 31:7; 35:12; 37:6, 8, 9; Lev. 16:2, 13, 14, 15, Nu 7:89; Ezek. 43:14, 17, 20; Am. 9:1). With the exception of its occurrences in Ezekiel and Amos (where it refers to a sacrificial altar), it refers to the lid of the Ark of the Covenant.


By referring to Christ as a “Propitiatory shelter” (or “mercy seat”) in v. 25, Paul was figuratively representing Christ as the “place” where (or the means through which) the sins of those who believe the evangel with which he was entrusted (the evangel of the grace of God) are taken away, and cease to be reckoned to them by God. This is in accord with Paul’s words in Eph. 1:7 (cf. Col. 1:14):


In [Christ Jesus] we are having the deliverance through his blood, the forgiveness of offenses in accord with the riches of his grace.”


“The deliverance” of which Paul wrote – i.e., “the forgiveness of offenses” – is said to be “through his blood” because it’s through faith in Christ’s death for our sins (or “through faith in his blood”) that we receive it.


Paul went on to write that the purpose for which Christ was “set forth a mercy seat” (or “purposed for a Propitiatory shelter”) by God was “…the showing forth of His righteousness, because of the passing over of the bygone sins in the forbearance of God” (or, because of the passing over of the penalties of sins which occurred before in the forbearance of God”). That which Paul referred to as “[God’s] righteousness” here – and which was “shown forth” or “displayed” when Christ died – is, I believe, God’s own righteous character (which I believe is evident from the expression “for His being righteous” in v. 26). This righteousness of God was referred to earlier, in Rom. 3:3-8. Here’s how these verses read in the CLNT:


For what if some disbelieve? Will not their unbelief nullify the faithfulness of God? May it not be coming to that! Now let God be true, yet every man a liar, even as it is written:


“That so Thou shouldst be justified in Thy sayings, And shalt be conquering when Thou art being judged.”


Now if our injustice is commending God's righteousness, what shall we declare? Not that God Who is bringing on indignation is unjust! (As a man am I saying it.) May it not be coming to that! Else how shall God be judging the world? Yet if the truth of God superabounds in my lie, for His glory, why am I also still being judged as a sinner, and why not say, according as we are calumniated and according as some are averring that we are saying, that "We should be doing evil that good may be coming"? -- whose judgment is fair.


Here, God’s faithfulness refers to his promises concerning Israel’s future salvation and destiny. Would the unbelief of some Israelites (the majority in Paul’s day) nullify God’s faithfulness in keeping his promises to his covenant people? That is, would their unbelief prevent God from fulfilling what he promised to the chosen nation? Paul clearly denied that this could possibly be the case. In fact, the “injustice” of the unbelievers among the nation can only serve to commend – i.e., show forth more clearly – God’s righteousness (as I’ll be arguing a little later – and as I believe the immediate context suggests – the righteousness of God to which Paul referred is God’s commitment to save his covenant people, Israel).


In Romans 9-11 Paul provides a much more expanded argument for the point briefly made in Romans 3:1-4, and demonstrates that, despite the unbelief of most Jews in his day, God will be faithful to keep his promises concerning the eonian salvation of Israel. Toward the end of Paul’s defense of God’s faithfulness, we read that, despite being “enemies” because of those to whom Paul wrote (i.e., those in the body of Christ), God’s covenant people are, “as to choice…beloved because of the fathers” (Rom. 11:28). The unbelief of the majority of Jews in Paul’s day could not nullify God’s faithfulness, because his commitment to saving Israel doesn’t depend on their faith or conduct. Instead – and as Paul goes on to make clear in verses 29-32 – it’s based on his past choice, and the related promises he made to “the fathers”:


“For un-regretted are the graces and the calling of God. For even as you once were stubborn toward God, yet now were shown mercy at their stubbornness, thus these also are now stubborn to this mercy of yours, that now they also may be shown mercy. For God locks up all together in stubbornness, that He should be merciful to all.”


Despite the fact that the majority of Israelites had abused their covenantal privileges and acted contrary to their covenantal obligations, their wickedness could not (and would not) annul God’s faithfulness to the promise which he made to Abraham – i.e., the promise that he would, by an “eonian covenant,” be God to Abraham and to his seed after him (Gen. 17:7). Instead, Israel’s unrighteousness as a nation actually served to commend the righteousness of God – his commitment to save Israel – in keeping and fulfilling the promise that he made to their forefathers. The more wicked and unbelieving the nation as a whole had become, the more God’s righteousness stands out.


In Rom. 3:5-8, Paul responds to the objection that, if the unbelief of the majority of Israelites commends God’s righteousness, then God would be unjust for bringing indignation on them. That is, if God’s commitment to save Israel (and thus keep the promise he made to the fathers) is made more apparent against the backdrop of Israel’s unbelief, why should the unbelievers within the nation be adversely judged for that which commends God’s righteousness, and which brings him glory? But of course, God is not unrighteous for bringing indignation on the unrighteous. For – as those whom Paul represented as bringing this objection would have agreed – God is going to judge the world (and, as Psalm 96:13 makes clear, God’s judgment of the world is also an expression of his faithfulness). But God couldn’t judge the world if the objection to which Paul was responding had any merit (which, again, is that God couldn’t justly bring indignation upon unrighteous Israelites if their judgment commended his righteousness and thus brought him glory). Thus, on the basis of the fact that God is going to be judging the world (and will be righteous in doing so), the objection to which Paul was responding fails.


In accord with how Paul links God’s faithfulness and commitment to saving Israel with God’s own righteousness in Romans 3:3-5, we find the righteousness of God referred to elsewhere in the Hebrew Scriptures as if it were synonymous with his faithfulness and his salvation:


Psalm 31:1

In you, O Yahweh, do I take refuge; let me never be put to shame; in your righteousness deliver me!


Psalm 40:10

I do not conceal Your righteousness within my heart; I speak of Your faithfulness and Your salvation; I do not hide Your lovingkindness and Your truth from the great assembly.


Psalm 51:14

Deliver me from bloodguiltiness, O God, the God of my salvationthen my tongue will joyfully sing of Your righteousness.


Psalm 88:11-12

Will Your lovingkindness be recounted in the grave, Your faithfulness in Abaddon? Will Your wonders be known in the darkness? And Your righteousness in the land of forgetfulness?


Psalm 96:13

…Yahweh comes to judge the earth. He will judge the world in righteousness, and the peoples in his faithfulness.


Psalm 143:1

Hear my prayer, O Yahweh; give ear to my pleas for mercy! In your faithfulness answer me, in your righteousness!


Psalm 98:1-3

Oh sing to Yahweh a new song, for he has done marvelous things! His right hand and his holy arm have worked salvation for him. Yahweh has made known his salvation; he has revealed his righteousness in the sight of the nations. He has remembered his steadfast love and faithfulness to the house of Israel. All the ends of the earth have seen the salvation of our God.


Isaiah 46:13

I bring near my righteousness; it is not far off, and my salvation will not delay; I will put salvation in Zion, for Israel my glory.


Isaiah 56:1

Thus says Yahweh: “Keep justice, and do righteousness, for soon my salvation will come, and my righteousness be revealed.”


Isaiah 51:4-8

Give attention to me, my people, and give ear to me, my nation; for a law will go out from me, and I will set my justice for a light to the peoples. My righteousness draws near, my salvation has gone out, and my arms will judge the peoples; the coastlands hope for me, and for my arm they wait. Lift up your eyes to the heavens, and look at the earth beneath; for the heavens vanish like smoke, the earth will wear out like a garment, and they who dwell in it will die in like manner; but my salvation will be for the eon, and my righteousness will never be dismayed.


Listen to me, you who know righteousness, the people in whose heart is my law; fear not the reproach of man, nor be dismayed at their revilings. For the moth will eat them up like a garment, and the worm will eat them like wool, but my righteousness will be forever, and my salvation to all generations.


The passages quoted above from Isaiah are particularly relevant to what Paul wrote in Romans 3:3-5, as they connect God’s righteousness to his promise-keeping commitment to save Israel.


Having shown that the divine righteousness of which we read in Rom. 3:25 can be understood as a reference to God’s commitment to save those to whom Paul was referring, let’s now consider why God thought it necessary to “display his righteousness” in the first place. The first reason is provided by Paul in the rest of v. 25: 


”…because of the passing over of the sins which occurred before in the forbearance of God…”


Young’s Literal Translation renders this part of v. 25 as follows: 


“…because of the passing over of the bygone sins in the forbearance of God…”


The Dabhar translation reads as follows: 


“…because of the remission of the failures having become before…”


The term that is translated “penalties of sins,” “sins” and “failures” is the Greek noun ἁμαρτημάτων (hamartēmatōn). This term occurs only three more times in the Greek Scriptures (https://biblehub.com/greek/strongs_265.htm). But which translation is more accurate? Is it better translated “sins” or “failures” (which are virtually synonymous in meaning), or “penalties of sins?”


Despite its attempt at a more literal translation of hamartēmatōn, I think the CLNT may actually be less accurate here. The fact that the elements of the word hamartēmatōn are, literally, “UN-MARK-EFFECT” doesn’t mean that the penalties of sins are in view here. Rather, what I believe Paul more likely had in mind here are the sinful actions to which sin leads, and which are the observable “effect” of sin (by implication, the term hamartēmatōn could also be understood as referring to the sins in which the actions result).


In support of this view, consider Christ’s words in Mark 3:28-29. The CLNT translates Christ’s words in these verses as follows:


“Verily, I am saying to you that all shall be pardoned the sons of mankind, the penalties of the sins (ἁμαρτήματα) and the blasphemies, whatsoever they should be blaspheming, yet whoever should be blaspheming against the holy spirit is having no pardon for the eon, but is liable to the eonian penalty for the sin (ἁμαρτήματος).”


The Dabhar, on the other hand, translates these verses as follows:


“Amen, I say to you: All will be remitted to the sons of men, yea, all the failures (ἁμαρτήματα) and the blasphemies, as it were, as many as they blaspheme, but the one who blasphemes toward the Holy Spirit, as it were, not has he remission till into the eon, but he will be liable of eonian failure (ἁμαρτήματος).


Understanding the term hamartēmatōn as referring to sins/failures (or better yet, “sinful actions”) seems preferable in light of the fact that the term is coupled with the term translated “blasphemies.” Moreover, in Matthew’s account of Jesus’ words here (see Matt. 12:31-32), the term hamartia (“sin”) is used instead of hamartēmatōn. Thus, given the fact that hamartēmatōn is used elsewhere in Scripture as if it were equivalent in meaning to the term for “sins,” I believe it would be preferable to understand hamartēmatōn in Romans 3:25 to mean either “sins” or “sinful actions” (rather than “penalties of sins”).


Let’s now consider the words, because of the passing over of the [sinful actions] which occurred before in the forbearance of God” (or, “because of the passing over of the bygone sins in the forbearance of God.”). 


It was originally my understanding that the sins/sinful actions that God is said to have “passed over” in his “forbearance” referred to the sins of those who were forgiven by God prior to Christ’s death (such as the sins of Abraham, Moses and David). However, I’m no longer convinced that this is the best way to understand what Paul wrote here, and believe that there’s a good reason why Paul chose to use the word translated “passing over” here (rather than “forgiveness”).


If Paul had wanted to express the idea that the sins of which he wrote in this verse had been forgiven by God, it’s reasonable to believe that he would’ve actually used the word “forgiveness” (instead of “passing over,” which doesn’t inherently express the idea of forgiveness). Instead of communicating the idea of sins being forgiven by God, the term translated “passing over” expresses the idea that, during the time period that Paul had in view, God refrained from intervening in a certain way with regard to the “sinful acts” referred to in this verse. This understanding is confirmed by Paul’s use of the term “forbearance” (which communicates the idea that God was patiently refraining from taking a certain action in response to the sinful acts that Paul had in mind). But whose sinful acts had God, at a prior time in history, been “passing over”?


We know that, because of the unique covenant relationship between God and Israel, the people of Israel were constantly confronted with their sin and called to repentance (as all of the prophetic books of the Hebrew Scriptures make clear). That is, rather than “passing over” the sins of his covenant people, God regularly intervened by either calling Israel to repentance through the prophets he sent to them (which would often involve the threat of judgment if Israel did not repent), or by actually judging Israel for her sins. However, as a rule, God didn’t relate to the nations in this way (God’s merciful treatment of Nineveh through the prophetic ministry of Jonah is a notable exception to the general rule of how God dealt with the nations). Instead of regularly intervening as he did for Israel, God left the nations in their ignorance and rebellion, and thus “passed over” their sinful acts (this understanding is further supported by the fact that the focus of the first two chapters of Romans is on the idolatrous conduct and general sinfulness of mankind in general).


In further support of this understanding of who Paul had in mind when he referred to “the passing over of the bygone sins in the forbearance of God,” let’s consider what Paul said elsewhere when speaking to the idol-worshipping people of Lystra and Athens. In Acts 14:11-17 we read that Paul and Barnabas declared the following to the people of Lystra:


And when the crowds saw what Paul had done, they lifted up their voices, saying in Lycaonian, “The gods have come down to us in the likeness of men!” Barnabas they called Zeus, and Paul, Hermes, because he was the chief speaker. And the priest of Zeus, whose temple was at the entrance to the city, brought oxen and garlands to the gates and wanted to offer sacrifice with the crowds.


But when the apostles Barnabas and Paul heard of it, they tore their garments and rushed out into the crowd, crying out, “Men, why are you doing these things? We also are men, of like nature with you, and we bring you good news, that you should turn from these vain things to a living God, who made the heaven and the earth and the sea and all that is in them. In past generations he allowed all the nations to walk in their own ways. Yet he did not leave himself without witness, for he did good by giving you rains from heaven and fruitful seasons, satisfying your hearts with food and gladness.”


Similarly, in Acts 17:29-31 we read that God declared to the men of Athens:


Being then God's offspring, we ought not to think that the divine being is like gold or silver or stone, an image formed by the art and imagination of man. The times of ignorance God overlooked, but now he commands all people everywhere to repent, because he has fixed a day on which he will judge the world in righteousness by a man whom he has appointed; and of this he has given assurance to all by raising him from the dead.”


Here’s how verses 30-31 read in the CLNT:


“Indeed, then, condoning the times of ignorance, God is now charging mankind that all everywhere are to repent, forasmuch as He assigns a day in which He is about to be judging the inhabited earth in righteousness by the Man Whom He specifies, tendering faith to all, raising Him from among the dead–“


In light of what we read in the above passages, I submit that, when Paul used the word “before” in Romans 3:25, he was referring to what he referred to in Acts 17:30 as “the times of ignorance” which “God overlooked” (or which God “condoned”). In accord with this view, the sins/sinful acts that we’re told God “passed over” during this time can be understood as the sinful acts of the nations (who, we’re told, were being allowed by God “to walk in their own ways” – i.e., by worshipping false gods and idols instead of the one true God).


We can, therefore, understand Paul’s words in Romans 3:25 as a reference to God’s past dealings with the nations (and not his past dealings with either Israel as a nation or those forgiven by God before Christ’s death). And just as the “passing over of the bygone sins in the forbearance of God” involved God’s allowing the nations to “walk in their own ways” (with their “own ways” being the sins/sinful acts that he passed over), so the display of God’s righteousness should also be understood as involving God’s dealings with the nations.


In the past, God was forbearing to the nations with regard to their idolatry (Acts 14:16), and refrained from intervening by providing the nations with a means of deliverance from their satanically-inspired deception. Past generations received no remedy for this problem. But by setting Christ forth ”a mercy seat, through the faith in his blood,” God has provided the nations with the remedy, and – through the apostolic ministry of Paul – has “opened to the nations a door of faith” (Acts 14:27-28; 15:3). And with salvation having been dispatched to the nations (Acts 28:28), the nations can have their eyes opened and be turned “from darkness to light, and from the authority of Satan to God,” and thus “get a pardon of sins and an allotment among those who have been hallowed by faith that is in [Christ]” (Acts 26:17-18).[i] Moreover, because the power of the evangel through which the nations may now be saved will invariably lead to a turning away from idol-worship (Acts 14:15; 1 Cor. 12:2; 1 Thess. 1:5, 9), Paul could affirm that, ever since his ministry among the nations began, God had been “charging mankind that all everywhere are to repent.”



[i] It’s possible that, when referring to God’s righteousness in Romans 3:25, Paul had in mind not just God’s commitment to save gentiles from their captivity to Satan (and the sinful acts of which their captivity was a manifestation), but – more specifically – God’s promise-keeping faithfulness to the nations. But is there a promise-based blessing that had been made available to the nations through the apostolic ministry of Paul (and by virtue of which God’s righteousness, or promise-keeping faithfulness, was being displayed)? Yes.

We know that, in his letter to the saints of Galatia, Paul was writing to ecclesias that belonged to “all the ecclesias of the nations” (and was not writing to those whom God considered members of his covenant people, Israel). Keeping this fact in mind, we read the following in Galatians 3:7-9, 13-14 and 27-29:

Know, consequently, that those of faith, these are sons of Abraham. Now the scripture, perceiving before that God is justifying the nations by faith, brings before an evangel to Abraham, that In you shall all the nations be blessed. So that those of faith are being blessed together with believing Abraham.

Christ reclaims us from the curse of the law, becoming a curse for our sakes, for it is written, Accursed is everyone hanging on a pole, that the blessing of Abraham may be coming to the nations in Christ Jesus, that we may be obtaining the promise of the spirit through faith.

“For whoever are baptized into Christ, put on Christ, in Whom there is no Jew nor yet Greek, there is no slave nor yet free, there is no male and female, for you all are one in Christ Jesus. Now if you are Christ’s, consequently you are of Abraham’s seed, enjoyers of the allotment according to the promise.”

From these passages it’s evident that the justification of the nations by faith is the fulfillment of the promise that “in [Abraham] all the nations” would “be blessed” (Gen. 12:3; 18:18; 22:17-18). In accord with this fact, we read the following in Romans 4:16-17:

“Therefore it is of faith that it may accord with grace, for the promise to be confirmed to the entire seed, not to those of the law only, but to those also of the faith of Abraham, who is father of us all, according as it is written that, A father of many nations have I appointed you…”

By making this promise-based blessing available to the nations through the heralding of the evangel of the grace of God by Paul and his co-laborers, it could be said that God displayed his promise-keeping faithfulness through the ministry of Paul and his co-laborers (through whom we’re told that Christ was announcing light “both to the people and to the nations”; see Acts 26:23).

3 comments:

  1. The letter was written to the Galatians but what Paul unveils in chapters 3-5 are relevant for Israelites. The reason for the contents of those chapters is because the Galatians were specifically wanting to be under the law of Moses. Never has it been a garrison for the nations. Yet Paul reveals that those who were garrisoned by the law are no longer because of Christ. The law was an escort to Christ, but never for the nations. This is truth for Israel but it was written to the Galatians because they were wanting to be under law(garrisoned). Simply put Paul was showing them if even Israel is no longer being garrisoned under law then they have no hope trying to be under it themselves. Presently the nation of Israel is under the law but not in accord with recognition but as it were veil covering the eyes of their understanding. See 2Corinthians 3, Romans 9:30-10:4, Hebrews chapter 4:6-7, 7:19.

    ReplyDelete
    Replies
    1. Hi David,

      Thanks for your comments. However, I'm not sure what part of my article on Romans 3:25-26 you're responding to, or understand the relevance of your comments to the article. Nevertheless, I'll share some thoughts on your comments.

      First, I agree 100% that the nations have never been "garrisoned under law." However, I think you're mistaken concerning who, exactly, Paul was saying is no longer the law "as an escort." Paul was referring specifically to those Jews who, like himself, "are believing" (Gal. 3:22), and who had become "sons of God, through faith in Christ Jesus" (vv. 23-26), and now belonged to that company of saints to whom the words of verses 27-29 apply - i.e., those Jews who (like himself) were members of "the body of Christ."

      Those in the body of Christ who were ethnically Jewish (like Paul and Barnabas) ceased to be members of God's covenant people when they became members of the body of Christ, and thus ceased to be under the law. But not all Jews who could be considered believers in Christ or "saints" in Paul's day were members of the body of Christ. The majority of believing Jews belonged to a company of saints that predated the body of Christ, and which existed alongside the body of Christ (i.e., the company of saints that Paul referred to as "the Israel of God" in Gal. 6:16).

      I've written a number of articles on my blog in which I demonstrate from scripture that there is, in fact, an important distinction to be made between the body of Christ and the Israel of God, and that each company of saints has a different calling and expectation during the eons. The following are links to some articles that are relevant to this topic:

      https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2019/10/revisiting-two-evangels-controversy.html

      https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2019/10/revisiting-two-evangels-controversy_12.html

      https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2019/10/revisiting-two-evangels-controversy_85.html

      https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2021/01/a-response-to-l-ray-smiths-criticism-of.html

      https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2021/01/a-response-to-l-ray-smiths-criticism-of_20.html

      https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2023/12/why-romans-228-29-and-96-8-doesnt.html

      https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2021/08/the-seed-of-abraham-part-one.html

      https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2021/08/the-seed-of-abraham-part-two.html

      https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2023/01/who-are-chosen-of-matthew-24.html

      https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2023/02/the-connection-between-chosen-of.html

      (continued below)

      Delete
    2. Regarding 2 Cor. 3, there is nothing said by Paul in this chapter that indicates that the believers among God's covenant people (the Israel of God) were no longer under the law.

      Regarding Romans 9:30-10:4, Paul's talking about how Israelites who did not believe the evangel of the Circumcision (which concerns the Messianic identity of Jesus) were not "subjected to the righteousness of God" - i.e., the righteousness that is "of faith" - and thus lacked the righteousness that is required for them to be saved and enter the kingdom that's going to be restored to Israel. Every member of the Israel of God has faith, and thus has "the righteousness that is of faith." But this fact in no way means that they're no longer under the law. Even before Christ's death - when even you would agree that all Jews were "under the law" - faith was essential to the salvation of God's covenant people. This didn't change for Israel after Christ came; what changed was that a Jew - who continued to have a covenant-based obligation to keep the law - had to believe that "Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God" in order to be saved. In other words, keeping the law has never been optional for Israel, but it has also never been sufficient for salvation. Faith has always been necessary. And since the coming of Christ, faith must be in Christ.

      In Rom. 10:4, the words "Christ is the consummation of law" mean that Christ is the aim, or goal, of law - i.e., he is that to which the law leads, or points (for this understanding of the word telos, see 1 Tim. 1:5, James 5:11, 1 Pet 1:8-9). But Christ didn't abolish the law for Israel; God's covenant people are still under the law, and have a covenant-based obligation to keep its precepts (Matt. 5:17-20, 19:16-19, 23:1-3, etc.). But only by believing in Christ does a member of God's covenant people receive the righteousness that is of faith (and which is needed for their salvation).

      Regarding Heb. 4:6-7, these verses have to do with the millennial kingdom during the next eon, and do not indicate that the Israel of God is not under the law. Those believing Jews who will enter into this "sabbatism" (which is the eonian salvation referred to in Heb. 5:9) are said to be those "who are obeying [Christ]." And obeying Christ means doing what he said an Israelite needed to do in order to be saved (which is more than "just believe"). James is crystal clear on the fact that those to whom he wrote needed both faith and works to be saved. And the same is taught in the letter to the Hebrews; see the following article: https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2022/08/why-letter-to-hebrews-was-not-written.html

      Regarding Heb. 7:19, see the following article for some remarks on it: https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2018/11/q-on-my-acts-15-study.html

      As with the other verses you've referenced, it's perfectly consistent with the fact that the believing Jews to whom the letter was written (and who weren't members of the body of Christ) were just as much under the law as they were before Christ's death and resurrection.

      Aaron

      Delete