On the website of a church that’s located a short distance from where I live, we read the following concerning some of their ”core beliefs”:
Christians are people who have invited the Lord Jesus Christ to come and live inside them by His Holy Spirit. They relinquish the authority of their lives over to him thus making Jesus the Lord of their life as well as Savior. They put their trust in what Jesus accomplished for them when He died, was buried, and rose again from the dead.
We go on to read the following concerning Compassion Church’s doctrinal position regarding the destiny of Christians and the rest of mankind:
We believe that Heaven and Hell are both very real. It can be scary to think about what will happen after we die. However, we know that those who put their faith and trust in Jesus and make Him the Lord of their life will spend eternity together with Him in Heaven. Unfortunately, for those who do not choose Jesus as their Lord and Savior, they will spend eternity separated from God in Hell.
Heaven - Luke 24:16, 36, 39; John 2:19-21, 20:26-28, 21:4; Acts 24:15; I Corinthians 15:42, 44; Philippians 1:21-23, 3:21
Hell - Matthew 25:41; Mark 9:43-48; Hebrews 9:27; Revelation 14:9-11, 20:12-15, 21:8
In the above doctrinal statement we read that it is those who “make [Jesus] the Lord of their life” who will “spend eternity together with Him in Heaven.” The idea that we have to “make Jesus the Lord of our life” is not scriptural. According to Scripture, Jesus is already the Lord of everyone, regardless of whether or not one realizes it (or is presently submitted to him as Lord). When God roused his Son from among the dead he gave him “all authority in heaven and on earth” (Matt. 28:18), and thus made him “Lord of all” (Acts 2:36; 10:36; Rom. 10:9, 12; cf. 1 Cor. 11:3). In Romans 14:8-9 we read that the reason “Christ died and lives” is to “be Lord of the dead as well as of the living.” Since every human being is either alive or dead, Christ is necessarily Lord of the entire human race. And this, of course, includes everyone who has died (or who will die) in unbelief.
But what does it mean for Jesus to be “Lord?” According to the New American Standard Greek Lexicon, the title “lord” refers to someone “to whom a person or thing belongs, about which he has power of deciding,” and “the possessor and disposer of a thing.” Such is the case with Christ. Jesus’ status as “Lord” means that he has power and authority over others, and can make decisions concerning those over whom he has authority. It also implies that he is responsible for the welfare of those of whom he is Lord.
Because God made his Son “Lord of all,” it necessarily follows that Jesus has power and authority over all, whether living or dead. And this means that, if it’s Christ’s intent to ultimately save all sinners and reconcile them to God (and it is, as is evidenced by the fact that he died for all), then he has the power and authority to bring this about. And this means that dying in unbelief is no obstacle at all to being saved by Christ.
We also know that Christ came to do the will of his Father (John 6:38; Heb. 10:7) and that God’s will “shall prosper in his hand.” (Isaiah 53:10). Christ shall, without fail, accomplish what he came into the world do. And what is the will of God with regard to the purpose for which Christ came into the world? According to 1 Tim. 2:4, God “wills that all mankind be saved and come into a realization of the truth.” Since Christ came to do the will of his Father – and since God’s will shall prosper in Christ’s hand (for Christ was given all authority in heaven and on earth to carry it out) – it follows that Christ shall, in fact, save all mankind. The One who died and was roused for the sake of all (2 Cor. 5:14-15) – and who is presently sitting at the right hand of God as Lord of all – will ultimately use his authority to subject all to himself so that God may be “All in all” (1 Cor. 15:22-28; Phil. 3:21).
Christ can just as easily resurrect unbelievers and transform them into loyal, obedient servants of God as he was able to save Paul on the road to Damascus. No prior “willingness” on the part of those yet to be saved by Christ is required in order for Christ to save them. As was so clearly manifested in the dramatic calling of the apostle Paul (Acts 9:1-22), Christ can exercise his authority to bring about the salvation of any of the sinners he came into the world to save – whether they’re presently dead or alive – without the sinner doing or believing anything beforehand to “qualify” for salvation. It is completely within Christ’s power to eradicate unbelief from the heart of even the most stubborn of sinners, and to produce within them the unfeigned love and heartfelt obedience by which God is glorified.[1]
Since no one who is in need of being saved is their own Lord, their salvation is not up to them. It is, instead, up to the One who is their Lord. And this simple fact completely destroys the position that anyone will spend “eternity separated from God in Hell.” Having received all authority in heaven and on earth from God, there is nothing in heaven or on earth that can prevent Christ from accomplishing the salvation of every single sinner for whom he died. As Lord of all, Christ is able to subject all to himself by the same operation that will result in the vivification of believers (Phil. 3:21). And, at the consummation of his reign, Christ is ultimately going to use his God-given authority to bring about this universal state of affairs so that God may be “All in all” (1 Cor. 15:28).
Notice, also, that in the above doctrinal statement we’re told that it is ”those who put their faith and trust in Jesus and make Him the Lord of their life” who will ”spend eternity together with Him in Heaven.” The implication is that it is only those who do so who will be saved, and that one must do this before one dies. However, most Christians also believe that every human who dies in infancy and early childhood (as well as many who die in a mentally handicapped condition) will be saved despite not having “put their faith and trust in Jesus” before they died. Thus, most Christians (including the leadership of Compassion Church) have either not thought through what they believe very carefully, or – if they have – are simply being inconsistent here. For the exception that most Christians are willing to make for infants/young children (and many mentally handicapped people) completely invalidates their belief that only “those who put their faith and trust in Jesus” before they die will ever be saved, and that everyone else will “spend eternity separated from God in Hell.”
Notice, also, the words, ”[Christians] put their trust in what Jesus accomplished for them when He died, was buried, and rose again from the dead.” This statement raises the following question: What, exactly, did Jesus accomplish for those on whose behalf he died? As I’ve argued in greater depth elsewhere (click here), when Christ died he secured the salvation of every sinner for whom he died. In fact, it’s this very truth that’s being communicated in the words “Christ died for our sins” (as found in 1 Corinthians 15:3, where Paul reminded his readers of the gospel that he’d heralded to them). That is, to believe that “Christ died for our sins” is to believe that Christ died to secure the removal of our sins (i.e., so that our sins would be eliminated as a source of condemnation). And this means that everyone for whom Christ died – which is all mankind – shall be justified (as we find affirmed by Paul in Romans 5:18-19).
Thus, in contrast with what’s being implied in the above doctrinal statement, it is not at all the case that only those who “put their faith and trust in Jesus” before they die will be saved. The gospel itself contradicts this idea. Moreover, those who believe that the majority of sinners are never going to be saved (and that only “Christians” are going to “spend eternity together with Jesus in heaven”) are not actually putting their trust in what Jesus accomplished. Instead of trusting in what Jesus accomplished (i.e., the securing of every sinner’s salvation), most Christians are, instead, believing the false idea that Jesus merely made our salvation possible when he died, and didn’t actually secure the salvation of anyone. For those who believe this false gospel, it’s not what Jesus did (or will do) that actually secures the salvation of sinners. Rather, according to what most Christians believe, it’s their own decision (i.e., their decision to repent and to “believe on Christ”) that actually secures their salvation.
Instead of revealing that only “Christians” will be saved, Paul wrote that God is “the Savior of all mankind, especially of believers” (1 Tim. 4:10). For God to be the Savior of any group of people means that they will be saved. And since the word “especially” doesn’t mean “exclusively,” we can conclude that all mankind – and not just believers – will be saved by God. Although believers are being saved first (hence Paul’s use of the word “especially”), God remains the Savior of the rest of those who constitute “all mankind.” And since Paul made a distinction between believers and the rest of “all mankind,” we can conclude that the rest of “all mankind” consists entirely of unbelievers. Since, therefore, God is the Savior of all unbelievers, it follows that all who die in unbelief will ultimately be saved by God (otherwise, God wouldn’t be “the Savior of all mankind, especially of believers”; he would instead be the Savior of believers only).
Moreover (and as I’ve argued in greater depth elsewhere; see, for example, the following two-part article), the salvation that Paul had in mind as being “especially” for believers – i.e., for those to whom God has given the faith to believe on Christ in this lifetime – is a salvation that will be enjoyed during the future period of time that Paul referred to as “the oncoming eons” (Ephesians 2:7-9; cf. Eph. 1:13-14), and will involve being alive throughout the duration of these future eons and enjoying an allotment in the kingdom of God. It is this salvation that is referred to elsewhere as (literally) “life eonian” (Luke 18:30; John 3:15-16; Acts 13:48; Rom. 6:23; 1 Tim. 1:16; Titus 1:1-2; 3:4-7). This is the salvation from which unbelievers will be excluded.
But the exclusion of unbelievers from this salvation is perfectly consistent with their being eventually saved, for “the oncoming eons” during which they'll remain unsaved are the eons of Christ’s future reign. And it's evident from what Paul revealed in 1 Corinthians 15:24-28 that Christ’s reign is not going to continue without end. In this passage we read that Christ is eventually going to be “giving up the kingdom to His God and Father,” and that Christ ”must be reigning until He should be placing all His enemies under His feet.” The word “until” expresses the idea that, when all of Christ’s enemies have been subjected to him, he will cease to reign (for there will no longer be a need for him to continue reigning). This idea is also being expressed in the words, “then the Son Himself also shall be subjected to Him Who subjects all to Him…” Christ’s subjection to his God and Father at this time will consist of his giving up the kingdom to his God and Father.
A consideration of Compassion Church’s “Hell” verses
Of the verses referenced by Compassion Church in support of the doctrine of “Hell,” the only passage in which the word “hell” actually occurs (at least, in most modern English Bibles) is Mark 9:43-48. However, the Greek word used in these verses (i.e., géenna or “Gehenna”) is a transliteration of the Hebrew term Gêhinnōm, and literally means “Valley of Hinnom” (or “Hinnom Valley”). Rather than referring to a subterranean or otherworldly place of “eternal torment,” the location that Christ had in mind when he spoke of “Gehenna” is a literal valley in Israel that forms the western and southern border of the old city of Jerusalem.
After Christ returns to earth at the end of this eon to restore the kingdom to Israel, this valley will be used for the disposal (and incineration) of the corpses of those who rebel against God. This will fulfill the following words of Isaiah’s closing prophecy:
“They will go out and observe the corpses of those who rebelled against me, for the maggots that eat them will not die, and the fire that consumes them will not die out. All people will find the sight abhorrent.”
It is this future state of affairs described in Isaiah 66:24 that Christ was referring to whenever he spoke of “Gehenna” during his public ministry. Thus, although “Gehenna” (i.e., Hinnom Valley) will be a place of future judgment during the eon to come, it will not be a place where anyone will “spend eternity separated from God” (for a more in-depth defense of this understanding of “Gehenna,” click the following link for part one of my study on this subject: The “hell” of which Jesus Christ spoke).
With regard to Matthew 25:41, a more accurate translation of the expression used in this verse to refer to the fate of those of whom Christ was speaking (i.e., the “goats”) is “fire eonian” (and not “eternal fire”). The Greek word translated “eternal” in the most commonly-read Bibles doesn't actually mean “without end” (for a more in-depth defense of this point, see part two of my article on John 3:16: http://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2021/09/why-john-316-is-not-about-your-eternal_29.html). Moreover, the expression “fire eonian” is simply a figurative way of describing what Christ went on to refer to as “chastening eonian” (v. 46). Those who will be going into the “chastening eonian” of which Christ spoke will be people from among the nations who will be alive on the earth during the future time of Israel’s “great affliction” (as referred to by Christ in Matt. 24:15-25) – specifically, those who refuse to bless the persecuted saints during this time (as Christ makes clear in Matt. 25:42-43).
Moreover, the “chastening eonian” into which these “cursed” Gentiles will be going has nothing to do with anyone’s existence beyond this mortal lifetime. Instead, the “chastening eonian” that Christ had in view will be taking place on this earth during the eon to come, when the saints will be exercising authority over the nations and “shepherding them with an iron club, as vessels of pottery are being crushed” (Rev. 2:26-27). The reason why the “chastening eonian” of the nations during this time is said to be “made ready for the Adversary and his messengers” is because Satan is going to be taking advantage of this future state of affairs as soon as his thousand-year-long imprisonment is over (Rev. 20:7-9). For a more in-depth examination of what the eonian destiny of the “goats” will involve, click here for part six of my study on Matthew 25:31-46.
With regard to Hebrews 9:27, we’re not told that the “judgment” referred to here is one that involves (or will involve) anyone being eternally separated from God. In fact, this verse need not even be understood as having anything to do with the “post-mortem destiny” of mankind in general. Instead of having all mankind in view, the author of the letter to the Hebrews most likely had in view a specific category of men – i.e., the high priests of Israel (with whom the author had been comparing and contrasting Christ in the context in which this verse is found). In the Concordant Literal New Testament this verse begins as follows:
“And, in as much as it is reserved to the men [tois anthropois] to be dying once, yet after this a judging…”[2]
Since the author had the high priests in view in chapter 9 (see verses 7 and 25) as well as in the previous chapters (even referring to them elsewhere as “men” and “mortal men”; see 7:8, 27-28), it would be natural for the author to refer to them again in 9:27 by using the expression “tois anthropois” (an expression which can just as validly be translated as “the men” as it can be translated simply “men”).
But what, then, did the author have in mind when he referred to “a judging” that follows the death of the high priest? The following remarks by A.E. Knoch on this verse express what I believe to be the most likely view:
“This is not a general statement concerning all men, but the men who have been in view continually, that is, the Levitical priests. The word judgment has no reference to the judgment of mankind for sin, but the setting to rights of those cases in Israel which continued until the death of the high priest. The innocent man-slayer lived in the city of refuge until the death of the great priest (Nu.35:22-29). Then he might return to his patrimony. This was his “judgment”. The parallel demands that this judgment correspond with the salvation which will come to those who are awaiting Christ. He, the great Chief Priest, has died, and in due time Israel, the man-slayer, shall return to the land of his possession.”
Knoch went on to say, “Just as the high priest entered the holy of holies on the great day of atonement and came out to bless the waiting throng, so Christ has entered the heavenly sanctuary and will bring a benediction when He comes.”
With regard to the judgments described in the verses referenced from Revelation, I’ve argued elsewhere that these judgments will also be taking place before Christ’s reign ends, and will thus not continue beyond the time when Christ abolishes death and delivers the kingdom to God (see my article Why Revelation doesn’t support the doctrine of “eternal conscious torment” for a more in-depth defense of this understanding). Even the longest-lasting of all the judgments referred to in Revelation (i.e., that which is associated with being “cast into the lake of fire”) will ultimately be temporary in duration, and has nothing to do with anyone’s “final destiny.” Since Christ died for the sins of those who are to be cast into the lake of fire, it necessarily follows that their salvation from the second death was secured.
Thus, in accord with the fact that the One who died for our sins is also our Lord, the verses referenced by Compassion Church in support of their doctrinal position concerning “Hell” do not actually support the view that anyone will “spend eternity separated from God.” And not only this, but three of the verses referenced by Compassion Church in support of their doctrine of “Heaven” (i.e., 1 Cor. 15:42, 44 and Phil. 3:21) actually support the truth that everyone for whom Christ died will ultimately be saved.
Here is how 1 Cor. 15:42-44 reads in the CLNT:
Thus also is the resurrection of the dead. It is sown in corruption; it is roused in incorruption. It is sown in dishonor; it is roused in glory. It is sown in infirmity; it is roused in power. It is sown a soulish body; it is roused a spiritual body.
Notice that the body associated with the resurrection Paul had in mind in v. 42 is a body that will be incorruptible, glorious, powerful and spiritual. We can therefore conclude that the kind of resurrection to which Paul was referring in v. 42 is not the kind of resurrection that people underwent prior to Christ’s resurrection (such as the resurrection of Lazarus, or of Jairus’ daughter). Everyone besides Christ who was resurrected in the past eventually died again, since their resurrection involved being restored to a mortal existence. In contrast, the resurrection that Christ underwent involved being introduced into an immortal, incorruptible state that’s beyond the reach of death.
However, contrary to what most Christians believe, the kind of resurrection to which Paul was referring in v. 42 is not going to be limited to believers. In 1 Cor. 15:20-22 we read the following:
“Yet now Christ has been roused from among the dead, the Firstfruit of those who are reposing. For since, in fact, through a man came death, through a Man, also, comes the resurrection of the dead. For even as, in Adam, all are dying, thus also, in Christ, shall all be vivified.”
Most Christians seem to believe that it was Paul’s intent to express the following idea in this verse: Just as all who are “in Adam” are dying, so all who are “in Christ” shall be vivified (or “made alive”). According to this interpretation, Paul was merely revealing the destiny of all who are presently “in Christ” (i.e., believers), and was not revealing the destiny of all who, in Adam, are dying. However, this interpretation fails to take into account what Paul actually wrote.
The parallelism of 1 Cor. 15:22 clearly indicates that the same individuals who are included within the first “all” (i.e., all who, in Adam, are dying) are included within the second “all.” That is, the individuals referred to by the two uses of the word “all” are identical, and the scope of the first “all” thus determines the scope of the second “all.” And since the first “all” is comprised of all descendants of Adam (all of whom can be referred to as dying “in Adam”), it necessarily follows that all mankind shall be vivified “in Christ.”
One cannot, therefore, appeal to the fact that all are not presently “in Christ” in order to support the view that all won’t be vivified; according to what Paul wrote, the vivification of all who are dying in Adam is a future certainty. All who are dying in Adam shall be vivified, and this future vivification shall occur “in Christ” (i.e., through, or by means of, Christ). Being vivified in Christ is by no means restricted to the relatively small number of humans who are later referred to as “those who are Christ’s in his presence” (i.e., believers). Rather, it embraces the same individuals who, in 1 Tim. 2:4, we’re told God wills to save (i.e., “all mankind”).
And because all mankind will ultimately be vivified in Christ, it follows that all mankind will ultimately receive the same “power of an indissoluble life” which, in Heb. 7:16, is said to be possessed by Christ. And this must include those over whom the “second death” will be having jurisdiction during the final eon of Christ’s reign (for these will be the only people who will still be dead when the consummation arrives).
Moreover, we know that death is the penalty of which sin makes us deserving. In 1 Cor. 15:56, Paul went on to write: “Now the sting of Death is sin, yet the power of sin is the law.” The word translated “sting” denotes a pointed instrument used to injure and inflict pain (cf. Acts 26:14; Rev. 9:10). Paul was essentially saying that sin is what gives death the power to injure us. Apart from sin, death would have no power over us. And since the sting of death (sin) is going to be absent when one is vivified in Christ, it follows that, when all humanity has been vivified in Christ, they will have been justified and thus saved from their sins (which, of course, is what Christ died to accomplish).
We can therefore conclude that Paul had in mind every human being who has died (or will die) when he referred to “the dead” in 1 Cor. 15:42. And since the resurrection that Paul had in mind will involve a complete and permanent salvation from death, it follows that the resurrection that Paul had in mind will be a tremendously great blessing to everyone who will have a part in it. It also means that everyone who is going to be cast into the lake of fire is ultimately going to be saved from the lifeless state that this judgment will result in (i.e. the “second death”), and will receive the same kind of incorruptible, glorious, powerful and spiritual body that Christ presently has.
That all who have died or will die are going to be vivified in Christ (and thus saved from sin, “the sting of death”) is further supported by the second text referenced by Compassion Church in support of their understanding of heaven. In Phil. 3:19-21 we read the following:
For our realm is inherent in the heavens, out of which we are awaiting a Saviour also, the Lord, Jesus Christ, Who will transfigure the body of our humiliation, to conform it to the body of His glory, in accord with the operation which enables Him even to subject all to Himself.
Notice that we’re told that the “operation” which enables Christ to subject all to Himself is “in accord with” the operation by which believers will be vivified. This indicates that the final act of subjecting all who have not yet been subjected to Christ is going to occur by means of the same vivifying power through which Christ shall transfigure the mortal/corruptible body of the believer and conform it to Christ’s own glorious body. And this, in turn, means that the vivification of everyone else (i.e., everyone who will have not yet been made immortal) and the final subjection of all to Christ will occur at the same time.
But what, exactly, did Paul have in mind when he referred to everyone being subjected to Christ? What Paul wrote in 1 Cor. 15:25-28 can, I believe, shed further light on this subject. In this passage we read the following:
For [Christ] must be reigning until He should be placing all His enemies under His feet. The last enemy is being abolished: death. For He subjects all under His feet. Now whenever He may be saying that all is subject, it is evident that it is outside of Him Who subjects all to Him. Now, whenever all may be subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also shall be subjected to Him Who subjects all to Him, that God may be All in all.
Notice that the same term translated “subjected” in v. 28 is used in reference to both the “all” who are to be subjected to Christ and to Christ himself. Christ (who, of course, has never been relationally estranged from God or disobedient to his will) will be subjected to his God and Father when he gives up the kingdom to God, and thereby becomes a subject of this kingdom. We can therefore conclude that being subjected to Christ will involve becoming a subject of the kingdom that he’ll be giving up to God.
Notice, also, that the “all” that will be subjected to Christ when he becomes subjected to God will be the same “all” in which God will be “All.” Consider the following argument:
1. Both Christ himself and the “all” who will be subjected to Christ will comprise the “all” in whom God is going to be “All” when Christ delivers up the kingdom to God.
2. The “all” who will be subjected to Christ when he delivers up the kingdom to God will include everyone who died in unbelief.
3. The “all” in whom God is going to be “All” will include everyone who died in unbelief.
When the kingdom is given up to God (in accord with what we read in v. 24), the Father alone will reign over the then-universal kingdom, and all other intelligent, moral beings – including Christ himself – will be his subjects. We can therefore conclude that all who are going to be subjected to Christ (which is all human beings) are not only going to be permanently saved from death, but they’re going to become subjects of the kingdom that Christ is going to be delivering up to God after he has abolished death and subjected all to himself.
Conclusion
The word “compassion” means “sympathetic pity and concern for the sufferings or misfortunes of others.” One who truly has compassion for those who are in need of being saved from something (and who has the ability to save them) would not, and could not, refuse to ever save them. Although one may have a good and valid reason for choosing not to save someone at a certain time, a refusal to ever save a person whom one could save would betray a lack of compassion.
However, according to the doctrinal position of Compassion Church – which is the position to which the majority of Christians hold – Christ is never going to use his God-given power and authority to save those who die in unbelief. Thus, the implication of the position of Compassion Church is that Christ is not going to show compassion to the vast majority of the human beings for whom he died.
Thankfully, Christ’s compassion for unbelieving sinners does not end when they die. The same compassion for sinners that led Christ to die on the cross will also lead him to ultimately save every sinner for whom he died.
[1] Concerning this fact, A.E. Knoch wrote the following:
“The apostle Paul’s case is of surpassing significance in its
bearing on the salvation of unbelievers. He was the foremost of sinners, and it
cannot be denied that, among men, there was no case quite as desperate as his.
All question as to God’s ability to save vanishes in the light of his call on
the Damascus road. The miraculous means employed in his case surely would
suffice for every one of God’s enemies.” (All in All, p. 93)
[2] It may be objected that “high priest” is singular in v. 25. However, in this verse the author was likely referring to the then-living high priest as representative of that class of men to whom he had previously referred in the plural (see 7:27-28). So it would have been natural for him to refer to this particular class of men as “the men” in v. 27 after referring to the living representative of this class in v. 25.
Great article again Aaron, I especially love when you and others directly refute the positions of mainstream Christianity. I had a question as I've been doing some reading lately, and that is what your opinion is on 1 Corinthians 15:3-8. On the one hand, this is obviously the verse that we go to to differentiate the Evangel of the Uncircumcision from that of the Circumcision. On the other hand, from what I've read, it seems most scholars date this as an early creed to just 1-3 years after the resurrection (so already circulating among the church). And mind you, this is in defense of the resurrection, as it points out how early the belief began to spread. However, I can't help but feel like this is a bit at odds with what we believe about Paul, which is that his gospel was given to him by the glorified Christ, apart from any of the other apostles. If Peter, James, etc. knew this, does that affect Paul's unique gospel? Or does it simply mean that even though they knew about Christ's death for our sins (on top of his identity as the Messiah), it did not constitute part of their message, which is why we hardly see it in any of their letters.
ReplyDelete(Continued from above)
DeleteThus, the simple fact that "Christ died for our sins" (which implies the eventual justification and salvation of all mankind) is the key difference between the evangel of the grace of God that Paul heralded among the nations and the evangel of the Circumcision (which, being focused on Jesus' Messianic identity, includes the fact of his resurrection). But to what Scriptures was Paul referring when he wrote that Christ's death for our sins was "according to the Scriptures?"
One possibility is that Paul was simply referring to any verse of Scripture in which Christ's death is in view, despite there being no specific mention of the fact that his death would be for the sins of all mankind. According to this view, any scriptural confirmation of the fact that Christ died can be considered as implicit confirmation of the fact that Christ died for our sins. However, I think Paul may have actually had a specific verse in view here. In Isaiah 53:11 we find it prophesied that "the many" will be justified as a result of Christ's death. Now, I don't think the original readers of Isaiah (or the Jews in Paul's day) actually understood this as a reference to all mankind. Even the first-century believers among God's covenant people probably understood "the many" of v. 11 as a reference to Israel (or to "many" within Israel). But in light of what we read in Rom. 5:18-19, I think it's quite possible that Paul understood this part of the prophecy as a "veiled reference" to all mankind. Because of the ambiguity of what's being said in this verse, however, one could still say that the distinguishing element of Paul's evangel was a secret until it was made known to him.
Thanks for the in-depth response! I had one more question that popped enough, which I don't think has been addressed before (at least as far as I know, I could be wrong), and that's 2 Peter 3:16, where Peter says that Paul also wrote to the same company of believers he was writing to (i.e. Circumcision Jews). Again, maybe this has been covered on your blog before and if so please correct me, but I'm having trouble understanding why both apostles would be writing to the same group of people.
DeleteIt's evident from what we read in 2 Pet. 3:15-16 that (1) Peter recognized that the wisdom given to Paul was manifested in all of his epistles, (2) Paul had, at some point, written a letter to the same company of believers to whom Peter wrote, and (3) the subject of this letter involved the apparent “delay” in God's ushering in the day of the Lord, and helped them better appreciate the interval of time in which they were living (which is, of course, the subject being considered in 2 Pet. 3:1-13). But why would Paul have written to them concerning this?
DeleteWell, it's reasonable to believe that Paul had been given more insight into this particular subject than had Peter (which makes sense, given the fact that the administration given to Paul for the nations is confined to the interval of time during which the believers of the Circumcision were waiting for the day of the Lord to begin). This is, of course, one reason why some are inclined to think that Paul wrote Hebrews (although, as you know, I don't agree with this view).
But what else can we know about the letter to which Peter was referring? Not much, unfortunately. For all we know, it simply wasn’t God’s will for this letter to be included in the “canon of Scripture” (which may not be the only case in which a letter referred to in scripture didn’t make it into our Bibles; some believe that, in 1 Cor. 5:9, Paul was referring to an earlier letter he wrote to the saints in Corinth). Another possibility is that what Paul wrote in Romans 9-11 (or some modified version of what he wrote here) constituted the letter to which Peter was referring. The information contained in this section of Paul's letter to the Romans is arguably just as relevant to the believers among God's covenant people as it is to the body of Christ. And if Romans 9-11 is, in fact, what Paul sent to the believers to whom Peter wrote, it would account for why it's not part of the Greek Scriptures as a separate letter.
Hope that helps!
Aaron
Yes, thank you so much and keep up the great work!
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