Tuesday, January 1, 2019

One God and Father of all: How the scriptural revelation of the one true God contradicts the doctrine of the Trinity (Part Two)

Part Two: The God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ

Having examined the doctrinal position of Trinitarians, I will for the remainder of this study be arguing that the one, true God revealed in Scripture is none other than the divine person referred to in Ephesians 4:6 as the “God and Father of all.” In referring to God as a “person” I simply mean that he is an individual, conscious entity (or “self”) who is able to refer to himself by the use of singular, personal pronouns (such as “I,” “me” and “myself”), and can validly be referred to by other persons by the use of singular pronouns. Just as Jesus Christ is a single person, so I believe that the one true God is also a single person.

There are a number of ways in which one could go about defending the position summarized above. I want to begin by analyzing certain key elements of the following statement by Paul from Romans 15:6: “…with one mouth, you may be glorifying the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ.” The three truths affirmed in this verse that I will be considering are: (1) The truth that Jesus Christ is Lord; (2) The truth that God is the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ; and (3) The truth that the Father is the God of our Lord Jesus Christ.

Concerning the truth of the Lordship of Jesus Christ, let’s consider one of the most important Messianic prophecies in all of Scripture: Psalm 110:1. In this prophecy of David we read, “Yahweh said to my Lord: ‘Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.’” This key verse is quoted in the “New Testament” more often than any other verse from the Hebrew Scriptures. In this prophecy we find Yahweh (whose name is translated as "the LORD" in most English Bibles) inviting a person distinct from himself to sit at his “right” (or “right hand).” Besides literally referring to a physical location in the heavenly realm, sitting at God’s right hand also implies a position of authority and preeminence that is second only to God’s. It implies that one has been given all authority in heaven and on earth. Moreover, it’s clear from Mark 12:35-37 that Jesus understood himself to be the “Lord” to whom Yahweh was speaking in this prophecy: And answering, Jesus said, teaching in the sanctuary, “How are the scribes saying that the Christ is a Son of David? For he, David, said, in the holy spirit, ‘Said the Lord to my Lord, “Sit at My right, Till I should be placing Thine enemies for a footstool for Thy feet.”’ Then he, David, is terming Him ‘Lord.’ And whence is He his Son?” And the vast throng hears Him with relish.

Jesus’ being made Lord can be understood as having been prefigured in the story of Joseph. Pharaoh - who was considered a “god” to the Egyptians - exalted Joseph to a status that was second only to his own, even going so far as to give Joseph his signet ring (Gen 41:42), which signified Pharaoh’s own authority. According to Pharaoh himself, no one could even “lift up hand or foot in all the land of Egypt” without Joseph’s consent (vv. 40-41, 44, 55). Not only that, but Joseph was even given a new name (v. 45). While Joseph’s elevated status and delegated authority did not make him the same entity as Pharaoh (or place him above Pharaoh), it did enable him to do everything that Pharaoh could do. Joseph was set over all the land of Egypt; all the people were under his command. This is a beautiful type of what God did for Jesus when he raised him from the dead, set him at his right hand as Lord over all, and gave him a name that is above every name.

Trinitarians often claim that David was ascribing divine status to the Messiah when he referred to him as “my Lord” in Psalm 110:1. However, this belief betrays a serious misunderstanding on their part. The term David used in reference to the Messiah - i.e., adoni (“my lord,” which is from adon, “lord”) - is consistently used in the Hebrew Scriptures for those who were understood to be distinct from Yahweh. It was used most often in reference to humans who were considered to be of a superior status/rank (e.g., Gen. 24:12; 2 Sam. 15:15). On a few occasions it was used in reference to celestial messengers (e.g., Dan. 12:8; Zech. 1:9; cf. Rev. 7:14, where an angel is addressed by John as “my Lord”). To see all the occurrences of this term, click the following link: https://biblehub.com/hebrew/strongs_113.htm.

In contrast with the terms used for humans (adon/adoni), the Hebrew title for “Lord” that is reserved for Yahweh is Adonai (which is an emphatic form of adon). For all occurrences of this term, see the following: https://biblehub.com/hebrew/strongs_136.htm. Although the terms are similar in spelling, the differences in use and application have significant implications regarding the identity of the one God of Israel and the nature of the Messiah. While it is clear that the person told to sit at Yahweh’s right hand would’ve been understood by David as being superior in authority to himself (hence David calls him “my Lord”), it is equally clear that this person was understood as being distinct from, and subordinate to, Yahweh himself.

In this key Messianic prophecy, then, we find that the Messiah would be a man who, although highly exalted far above all other created beings - and given authority that is second only to Yahweh’s - is not to be identified with Yahweh himself. This is in accord with the fact that the Messiah had consistently been prophesied in the Hebrew Scriptures as being a member of Adam’s race, and as being distinct from the one God of Israel (see, for example, Genesis 3:15; 12:3; 22:18; 28:14; 49:10; Numbers 24:17-19; Deuteronomy 18:15; 2Sa 7:12-13; 1 Chronicles 17:13; Psalm 45:2-7, 17; 72:1; 89:3-4; 110:1; 132:11; Isaiah 7:14; 11:1-5; 52-53; Jeremiah 23:5; 30:21; Daniel 7:13; Zech 6:12-13; Micah 5:2).

That Jesus’ Lordship is distinct from the Lordship of Yahweh is further evident from the fact that Jesus’ status as Lord is derived from God, and is not inherently his. In Acts 2:29-36, we find that Peter understood the prophecy of Psalm 110:1 to have been fulfilled (or to have begun to be fulfilled) through the resurrection and ascension of Jesus:

“Men! Brethren! Allow me to say to you with boldness concerning the patriarch David, that he deceases also and was entombed, and his tomb is among us until this day. Being, then, inherently, a prophet, and having perceived that God swears to him with an oath, out of the fruit of his loin to seat One on his throne, perceiving this before, he speaks concerning the resurrection of the Christ, that He was neither forsaken in the unseen, nor was His flesh acquainted with decay. This Jesus God raises, of Whom we all are witnesses. Being, then, to the right hand of God exalted, besides obtaining the promise of the holy spirit from the Father, He pours out this which you are observing and hearing. For David did not ascend into the heavens, yet he is saying, ‘Said the Lord to my Lord, “Sit at My right Till I should be placing Thine enemies for a footstool for Thy feet.”’ Let all the house of Israel know certainly, then, that God makes Him Lord as well as Christ -- this Jesus Whom you crucify!"

From the above it’s clear that the exalted status which David prophesied Jesus would have when invited by Yahweh to sit at his right hand is a status that was given to Jesus when he was resurrected. It was at this time that God made Jesus “Lord.” There is, of course a sense in which Jesus was “Lord” before his death and resurrection, but it must be kept in mind that anyone who was considered to have a superior rank or status in relation to others could be addressed as “lord” or “Lord” (the capitalization of the term depends entirely on one’s translational preference). In addition to the numerous examples of humans being addressed as “lord” in the Hebrew Scriptures, we also find examples in the Greek Scriptures of people other than Jesus being addressed as “lord,” as well (e.g., Philip in John 12:21 and an angel in Acts 10:3-4 and Rev. 7:14). The authority that Christ received when he was resurrected, however, made him “Lord of all (Acts 10:36). And it this exalted status that Peter had in mind when, in Acts 2:36, he said that God had made Jesus “Lord.”

What we read in Acts 2:36 concerning Jesus’ being made Lord is in accord with the words of Christ himself in Matthew 28:18: Given to Me was all authority in heaven and on earth. Although Jesus had relatively great authority during his earthly ministry (having been anointed by God “with holy spirit and power” when he was baptized; Acts 10:38), he did not have “all authority in heaven and on earth” until after his death and resurrection; this authority was given to him by God as a reward for his obedience:

“…and, being found in fashion as a human, [Christ Jesus] humbles Himself, becoming obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. Wherefore, also, God highly exalts Him, and graces Him with the name that is above every name, that in the name of Jesus every knee should be bowing, celestial and terrestrial and subterranean, and every tongue should be acclaiming that Jesus Christ is Lord, for the glory of God, the Father.”

We also read in Romans 14:8-9 that Christ died and was restored to life by God so that “he should be Lord of the dead as well as of the living.” This implies that Jesus was not “Lord of the dead as well as of the living” before his death and resurrection. We’re also told that Jesus became “so much better than the messengers as He enjoys the allotment of a more excellent name than they” (Heb. 1:4).

In Psalm 110:1, then, we find that the Messiah would be a man who, although highly exalted far above all other created beings - and given authority that is second only to Yahweh’s - is not to be identified with Yahweh himself. For, in contrast with what we read concerning Jesus, Yahweh has never had to become better than any other being or class of beings, or receive from someone higher than himself “a name that is above every name.” Yahweh has never had to be made “Lord,” or be given “all authority in heaven and on earth.” Why? Answer: Because Yahweh is the Supreme Being. By virtue of his own inherent divinity, Yahweh is, and always has been, infinitely superior to all created beings. There was never a time when Yahweh was not “Lord” (i.e., Adonai). To conceive of Yahweh, the one true God, as a being who has ever had to receive anything from anyone is, quite simply, to fail to have a right conception of God as the Supreme Being.

Consider the following argument:

1. Following his death and resurrection, Jesus Christ was made Lord of all and was given all authority in heaven and on earth.
2. Yahweh, the one true God, has never been made Lord (he’s always been Lord), and has never been given all authority in heaven and on earth (he’s always had all authority).
3. Jesus Christ is not Yahweh, the one true God.

The conclusion to this argument leads us to our next point: Yahweh, the one true God, is the Father of the Lord Jesus Christ. Concerning Jesus’ being the Son of God, we find this truth explicitly affirmed on several occasions during Christ’s earthly ministry. Consider, for example, the declaration of the disciples after Christ walked on water: “Truly, you are God’s Son!”(Matt. 14:33) We also have Peter’s well-known confession in Matthew 16:16: “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” And the most important testimony concerning Jesus’ identity was undoubtedly provided by God himself: “This is my Son, the beloved, in whom I delight” (Matt. 3:17).

But why is Jesus able to be called the “Son of God” or “Son of the living God?” By virtue of what is the appellation “Son of God” applicable to Jesus? Answer: It’s applicable to Jesus by virtue of the fact that God (Yahweh) is his Father. But when, according to scripture, did God actually become the Father of Jesus? Answer: In Matthew 1:18-21 and Luke 1:31-35 we read that Jesus was generated by God when Jesus’ mother became pregnant with him. The word translated “generated” in these verses is gennao, and is the same word translated as “begotten” elsewhere in scripture (when the fathering of a child is in view). In other words, this term refers to the event by which a father brings his child into existence, and thereby becomes the father of that child (consider, for example, all the “begetting” that is referred to in Matthew 1:2-16).[1] 

Thus, the generating of Jesus that we find referred to in Matthew 1:20 and Luke 1:35 should be understood as the event by which God became the Father of his Son, and Jesus became the Son of God, his Father. To believe that God didn’t become the Father of his Son at this time – or that Jesus isn’t the Son of God by virtue of this historical event - is to simply disregard the very idea that the term gennao expresses in these and other verses. This simple fact means that Christ’s sonship (his being the Son of God) is inseparable from the fact that he was conceived in his mother’s womb through the power of God. Consider the words of Gabriel in Luke 1:35: “Holy spirit shall be coming on you, and the power of the Most High shall be overshadowing you; wherefore also the holy One Who is being generated shall be called the Son of God.

The word translated “wherefore” means “consequently,” or “for this reason.” Gabriel was, in these words to Mary, providing her with the very reason why Jesus would be called “the Son of God.” Jesus’ being the Son of God is inseparable from the fact that he was generated (or begotten) by God at the time when his mother became pregnant with him. Since God became Jesus’ father when the words of Luke 1:35 were fulfilled, it follows that the existence of Jesus as the Son of God began when he was conceived by God.

Now, when Peter identified Jesus as “the Christ, the Son of the living God,” the “living God” that Peter had in view was Yahweh, the one true God (Deut. 5:26; Josh. 3:10; 1 Sam. 17:26, 36; Psalm 42:2; 84:2; Jer. 23:36; Dan. 6:26; Hosea 1:10). The living God is, in other words, the God before whom Israel was commanded to have no other gods (Exodus 20:3; Deut. 5:7). In Jeremiah 10:10 (CVOT) we read, “Yet Yahweh is Elohim in truth; He is the living Elohim and the eonian King…” Here we find the living God (Elohim) identified as Yahweh, the one God of Israel (notice also that Yahweh is referred to as “he” and not “they”). Thus, Peter was affirming that Jesus is the Son of Yahweh, the one true God. And if Yahweh is Jesus’ Father, then he is necessarily distinct from Jesus.

One of the most common titles given to Yahweh is “the Most High” or “the Supreme” (see, for example, Genesis 14:18-22; Num. 24:16; Deut. 32:8; 2 Sam. 22:14; Psalm 7:17; 9:2; 18:13; 21:7; 46:4; 47:2; 50:14; 57:2; 77:10; 78:17, 35, 56; 82:6; 83:18; 87:5; 91:1, 9; 92:1; 97:9; 107:11; Isa. 14:14; Lam. 3:35, 38; Dan. 3:26; 4:2, 17, 24, 25, 32, 34; 5:18, 21; 7:18, 22, 25, 27; Hos. 7:16; 11:7; Luke 1:32, 76; 6:35; Acts 7:48). But rather than being identified with the “Most High,” Jesus is instead said to be the “Son of the Most High”:

And lo! you shall be conceiving and be pregnant and be bringing forth a Son, and you shall be calling His name Jesus. He shall be great, and Son of the Most High shall He be called. And the Lord God shall be giving Him the throne of David(Luke 1:31-32; cf. Mark 5:7). The Son of the Most High cannot be identified with the Most High himself; the fact that Jesus is the Son of the Most High means that Jesus is to be distinguished from the Most High. And since Jesus is not the Most High, he is necessarily subordinate to the Most High.

Later, in Acts, we read that Peter referred to Jesus as the “servant” of God: ”The God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, the God of our fathers, glorified his servant Jesus...” (Acts 3:13; cf. 5:30; Isaiah 42:1). Based on the use of the singular personal pronoun “his,” it’s clear that Peter understood the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob to be a single person. And since Peter understood Jesus to be the servant of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, this God must be the God of Jesus as well.

That Jesus did, in fact, understand himself to have a God is just as clear as the fact that God is Jesus’ Father. Consider, for example, the following words that Christ exclaimed while on the cross: My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” (Matthew 27:46) And at least forty years after his resurrection and ascension, Christ declared the following to the church in Philadelphia: ”He who conquers, I will make him a pillar in the temple of my God. Never shall he go out of it, and I will write on him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem which comes down from my God out of heaven, and my own new name” (Rev 3:12). And in Hebrews 1:9 the author applied the prophetic words of Psalm 45:7 to Jesus as follows: “You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness beyond your companions.”

Thus we find that, both before and after his resurrection, Jesus understood himself to have a God. Consider also Matthew’s account of Jesus’ last temptation in the wilderness, as recorded in Matthew 4:8-10:

Again the Adversary takes Him along into a very high mountain, and is showing Him all the kingdoms of the world and their glory. And he said to Him, “All these to you will I be giving, if ever, falling down, you should be worshiping me.” Then Jesus is saying to him, “Go away, Satan, for it is written, The Lord your God shall you be worshiping, and to Him only shall you be offering divine service.”

Jesus replied to the Adversary’s last temptation by quoting the words of Deut 6:13. Had Jesus yielded to the Adversary’s temptation (which, of course, he did not do), he would’ve sinned against the Lord his God by worshipping as God someone other than the Lord his God. Moreover, we know that, in Deut. 6:13, Moses was speaking to Israel, collectively. Thus, whoever Christ believed to be the Lord God being referred to in Deut. 6:13, he would’ve understood to be the Lord God of all Israel, collectively.

But who, exactly, was the exclusive object of Jesus’ worship? What is the identity of the Lord God to whom Jesus was completely devoted? Who, exactly, would Christ have sinned against had he worshipped Satan as God? In light of the singular personal pronoun “him,” it’s reasonable to believe that the Lord God whom Israel was commanded to be worshipping is a single individual or person (rather than more than one person). Just as Scripture is clear that Jesus Christ has a God, so it’s equally clear who, exactly, the God of Jesus is. Jesus’ God is Yahweh, the one true God (who is repeatedly referred to by Jesus as "the Father" and "my Father"). Not only is this fact implied throughout the Gospel Accounts, but it’s a truth explicitly affirmed by Christ himself in John 20:17: ”But go to My brothers and tell them that I am ascending to My Father and your Father—to My God and your God.” The Father - and the Father alone - is the God whom Jesus worshipped, prayed to and obeyed.

In addition to Christ’s own words, it’s clear that Jesus’ apostles understood the Father to be the God of Jesus as well:

“...that together you may with one voice glorify the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ” (Romans 15:6).

“Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of mercies and God of all comfort” (2 Corinthians 1:3). 

“...the God and Father of our Lord Jesus” (2 Corinthians 11:31).

“Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ” (Ephesians 1:3).

The God of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of glory” (Ephesians 1:17).

“We give thanks to the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ” (Colossians 1:3).

“Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ” (1 Peter 1:3).

“[Jesus] has made us kings and priests to his God and Father” (Revelation 1:6).

As a way of summarizing the position that has been advanced thus far, here are a few arguments in defense of what I believe concerning the identity of God:

1. Jesus Christ is the Son of “the living God”/Son of “the Most High” (Matt. 16:16; Luke 1:32).
2. Jesus Christ is not his own Father, and Jesus’ Father is not his Son.
3. Jesus Christ is not the living God/Most High.

To this argument we could add the following:

4. The living God/Most High of whom Jesus is the Son is a single divine person.
5. The living God/Most High is identical with Yahweh, the God of Israel.
6. Yahweh, the God of Israel, is a single divine person.

We could formulate another argument based on the words Christ declared to Mary Magdalene in John 20:17:

1. Mary Magdalene’s God is the same God as Jesus Christ’s God (John 20:17).
2. Jesus Christ’s God is the Father alone.
3. Mary Magdalene’s God is the Father alone.

And to this argument we could add the following:

4. Mary Magdalene’s God is the one God of Israel, and the God before whom Israel was commanded to have no other gods.
5. The Father alone is the one God of Israel, and the God before whom Israel was commanded to have no other gods.
6. The triune god of Trinitarianism is not the Father alone, and is therefore a false god.





[1] In fact, “to bring into existence” is precisely what the English word “generate” (https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/generate), while the word “beget” can be defined as, “to cause to exist,” “to produce as an effect,” “to generate,” “to procreate” or “to father.”

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