Although Matthew referred to the being by whom Christ was tried in the wilderness as “the Adversary” (as well as “the trier”), Christ himself addressed this individual as “Satan” (Matt. 4:10). This is also how he’s referred to in Mark’s summarized account of Jesus’ trial in the wilderness: “And He was in the wilderness forty days, undergoing trial by Satan, and was with the wild beasts. And messengers waited on Him” (Mark 1:13). And as was noted in the introduction of this study, “Satan” is one of the titles by which the being symbolically represented by “the great dragon” is called (Rev. 12:.9; 20:2)
The Greek expression
translated “Satan” in these verses is τοῦ Σατανᾶς. Transliterated into
English, this expression would read “tou Satanas” (literally, “the Satan”; the
Greek article “tou” corresponds to the English definite article “the”). Of the
33 occurrences of the term “Satanas” in the Greek Scriptures, 28 include the
use of the definite article. Significantly
(and in contrast with the above examples), when Christ used the term “Satan” in
his rebuke of Peter (Matt. 16:23; Mark 8:33), the definite article was not used.
Here are a few more examples of verses in which the term “Satan” occurs with the use of the definite article:
Matthew 12:25-26
“Every kingdom parted against itself is being
desolated, and every city or house parted against itself shall not stand. And
if the Satan is casting out the Satan, he is parted against
himself. How, then, shall his kingdom stand?”
Luke 13:16
“Now this woman – being a daughter of Abraham,
whom Satan binds, lo! eighteen years
– must she not be loosed from this bond on the Sabbath day?”
Luke 22:31-32
“Now the Lord said, ‘Simon, Simon, lo! Satan claims you men, to sift you as
grain. Yet I besought concerning you, that your faith may not be defaulting.’”
2 Corinthians 11:13-15
“For such are false apostles, fraudulent workers,
being transfigured into apostles of Christ. And no marvel, for Satan himself is being transfigured
into a messenger of light. It is no great thing, then, if his servants also are
being transfigured as dispensers of righteousness -- whose consummation shall
be according to their acts.”
2 Thessalonians 2:8-10
“…then will be unveiled the lawless one (whom the
Lord Jesus will dispatch with the spirit of His mouth and will discard by the
advent of His presence), whose presence is in accord with the operation of Satan, with all power and signs and
false miracles and with every seduction of injustice among those who are
perishing…”
Rev. 20:7-8
“And whenever the thousand years should be
finished, Satan will be loosed out
of his jail. And he will be coming out to deceive all the nations which are in
the four corners of the earth...”
The Greek term translated “Satan” is actually a transliteration of the Hebrew noun שָׂטָן (śāṭān), meaning “adversary” or “one who
opposes/resists” (https://biblehub.com/greek/4567.htm). Although there are a number of verses in the Hebrew
Scriptures in which the term “satan” occurs, the only
verses in which it occurs with the use of the definite article are in Job 1-2
and Zechariah 3:1-2. In
every other occurrence of this term in the Hebrew Scriptures, the definite article is not used.
Significantly, in the ancient
Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures (i.e., the Septuagint, or “LXX”), every occurrence of the Hebrew expression “haś·śā·ṭān” (“the Satan”) in Job 1-2 and Zech. 3:1-2 is translated as τοῦ διαβόλου (or “tou diabolou”). In fact, the term “diabolos” (or some word derived from the verb “diaballó”) was almost
exclusively used to translate the Hebrew term “satan” with or without the definite article (the only exceptions to this are,
as far as I can tell, found in 1 Kings 11:14 and
11:25, where the
Greek transliteration “satanas” is used). The translators’ preference for using
“diabolou” in the place of the Hebrew “satan” indicates
that they understood these expressions to be basically equivalent in
meaning. And since the Hebrew
expression translated “Satan” (or “the Satan”) can be understood to mean “the
Adversary,” it follows that the expression “tou diabolou” communicates the same
basic idea.
To better appreciate the
significance of the use of the definite article in Job 1-2 and Zech. 3:1-2,
let’s now consider a verse in which the Hebrew term “satan” appears without
the definite article. Here is how 1 Chronicles
21:1 reads in the NET (New English
Translation): “An adversary opposed Israel,
inciting David to count how many warriors Israel had.” Concerning the
expression, “an adversary,” the NET provides us with the following note:
“The Hebrew word שָׂטָן (satan)
can refer to an adversary in general or Satan in particular. There is no
article accompanying the term here, which suggests it should be understood
generally (cf. NAB “a satan”).
The NET’s third footnote for this verse provides us with a more
detailed explanation for the translation, “an adversary opposed Israel”:
“The
parallel text in 2
Sam 24:1 says, “The Lord’s anger again raged against Israel
and he incited David against them, saying: ‘Go, count Israel and Judah!’“ The
version of the incident in the Book of 2 Samuel gives an underlying theological
perspective, while the Chronicler simply describes what happened from a human
perspective. Many interpreters and translations render the Hebrew שָׂטָן as a proper name here, “Satan” (NEB, NASB, NIV, NRSV).
However, the Hebrew term שָׂטָן,
which means “adversary,” is used here without the article. Elsewhere when it
appears without the article, it refers to a personal or national adversary in
the human sphere, the lone exception being Num
22:22, 32, where the angel of the Lord assumes the role of an adversary
to Balaam. When referring elsewhere to the spiritual entity known in the NT as
Satan, the noun has the article and is used as a title, “the Adversary”
(see Job
1:6-9, 12; 2:1-4, 6-7; Zech
3:1-2). In light of usage elsewhere the adversary in 1
Chr 21:1 is likely a human enemy, probably a nearby nation whose
hostility against Israel pressured David into numbering the people so he could
assess his military strength. For compelling linguistic and literary arguments
against taking the noun as a proper name here, see S. Japhet, I &
II Chronicles (OTL), 374-75.”
In light of the above remarks, let’s now consider those verses in the Hebrew Scriptures in
which the word “satan” occurs with the use of the definite
article (i.e., Job 1:6-12, 2:1-7 and Zech. 3:1-2). We’ll start with Zech. 3:1-2 (I’ll include verses
3-5 as well):
Then he
showed me Joshua the high priest standing before the angel of Yahweh, and Satan standing
at his right hand to accuse him. And Yahweh said to
Satan, “Yahweh rebuke you, O Satan! Yahweh who has chosen
Jerusalem rebuke you! Is not this a brand plucked from the fire?” Now Joshua was standing before
the angel, clothed with filthy garments. And
the angel said to those who were standing before him, “Remove the
filthy garments from him.” And to him he said, “Behold, I have taken your
iniquity away from you, and I will clothe you with pure vestments.” And I
said, “Let them put a clean turban on his head.” So they put a clean
turban on his head and clothed him with garments. And the angel of Yahweh was
standing by.
In these verses,
the individual who we’re told was standing at Joshua’s right hand to accuse him
is referred to as הַשָּׂטָ֖ן or “haś·śā·ṭān” (which, again, is literally “the Satan” or “the Adversary”). Since Joshua, the angel of Yahweh and Yahweh
himself should all be understood as conscious, intelligent beings (or
“persons”), it’s reasonable to understand the individual referred to as “(the)
Satan” in verses 1-2 as a conscious, intelligent being as well. But what else
can be said concerning the nature of this adversarial being? Was he simply
another human being like Joshua, the high priest? Or, is he to be understood as
belonging to the same order of superhuman, celestial beings to which the angel
of Yahweh belongs? If – as I think is reasonable – the “Satan” referred to in
Zech. 3:1-2 is the same adversarial being referred to in Rev. 12:10 as ”the accuser of our brethren…who was accusing them before our
God day and night,” then we can conclude that “the
Satan” of Zech. 3:1-2 is, in fact, a superhuman being.
That this understanding of the
nature of “the Satan” referred to in Zech. 3:1-2 is correct is, I think,
confirmed from the only other occurrences of the expression “the Satan” in the
Hebrew Scriptures. In Job 1:6-12 and 2:1-7 we read the following:
Now there
was a day when the sons of God came to present themselves before Yahweh,
and Satan also came among them. Yahweh
said to Satan, “From where have you come?” Satan answered Yahweh and said,
“From going to and fro on the earth, and from walking up and down on
it.” And Yahweh said to Satan,
“Have you considered my servant Job, that there is none like him on
the earth, a blameless and upright man, who fears God and turns away from
evil?” Then Satan answered Yahweh
and said, “Does Job fear God for no reason? Have you
not put a hedge around him and his house and all that he has, on every
side? You have blessed the work of his hands, and his possessions have
increased in the land. But stretch
out your hand and touch all that he has, and he will curse
you to your face.” And Yahweh
said to Satan, “Behold, all that he has is in your hand. Only against him do
not stretch out your hand.” So Satan went out from the presence of Yahweh.
Again there was a day
when the sons of God came to present themselves before Yahweh, and Satan also
came among them to present himself before Yahweh. And
Yahweh said to Satan, “From where have you come?” Satan answered
Yahweh and said, “From going to and fro on the earth, and from walking up
and down on it.” And Yahweh
said to Satan, “Have you considered my servant Job, that there is none like him
on the earth, a blameless and upright man, who fears God and turns away from
evil? He still holds fast his integrity, although you incited me against
him to destroy him without reason.” Then Satan
answered Yahweh and said, “Skin for skin! All that a man has he will give
for his life. But stretch
out your hand and touch his bone and his flesh, and he will curse you to
your face.” And Yahweh said to
Satan, “Behold, he is in your hand; only spare his life.”
So Satan
went out from the presence of Yahweh and struck Job with
loathsome sores from the sole of his foot to the crown of his head.
We have no good reason to believe that the man referred to as Job in these passages wasn’t a real, historical figure. In both James 5:11 and Ezekiel 14:, 20, Job is referred to as if he actually existed (in Ezekiel 14, God himself referred to Job as if he was just as much a real and historical figure as Daniel and Noah). But what about the individual who is repeatedly referred to in the above passages as הַשָּׂטָ֖ן or “haś·śā·ṭān” (which, again, is literally “the Satan” or “the Adversary”), and with whom we’re told Yahweh had an exchange (unbeknownst to Job)? As is the case with the existence of Job, there is no good reason to deny that this individual really existed in Job’s day. But what conclusions can we draw concerning
the nature of this adversarial being (besides the obvious fact that he has an
adversarial role and/or nature)?
The fact that “the Satan” referred to in these chapters is said to have been present among “the sons of God” while they were presenting themselves before Yahweh can, I believe, tell us a great deal about the nature of this particular individual. For, in the broader context of Job, the expression “sons of God” undoubtedly refers to superhuman, heaven-dwelling beings. In Job 38:4-7, we read that Yahweh asked Job the following rhetorical questions:
The fact that “the Satan” referred to in these chapters is said to have been present among “the sons of God” while they were presenting themselves before Yahweh can, I believe, tell us a great deal about the nature of this particular individual. For, in the broader context of Job, the expression “sons of God” undoubtedly refers to superhuman, heaven-dwelling beings. In Job 38:4-7, we read that Yahweh asked Job the following rhetorical questions:
“Where
were you when I laid the foundation of the earth? Tell me, if you have
understanding. Who determined its measurements—surely you know! Or who stretched
the line upon it? On what were its bases sunk, or who laid its cornerstone, when the morning stars sang together
and all the sons of God shouted for joy?”
From these verses it’s evident
that the beings referred to by Yahweh as “the sons of God” were present when
God “laid the foundation of the earth.” When we let these verses inform our
understanding of the nature of the “sons of God” referred to in Job 1-2, we can
conclude that these beings weren’t (and aren’t) human. Rather, they’re members
of that order of superhuman, celestial beings to which Michael and Gabriel
belong. This means that the event referred to in Job 1:6 and 2:1 (which
involved the sons of God presenting themselves before Yahweh) should be
understood as the same sort of heavenly assembly as that described in 2 Chron.
18:19-21 (where the “host of heaven” appear before Yahweh to discuss the case
of Ahab). And this would, of course, mean that “the Satan” referred to in Job
1-2 belongs to this same general class of non-human, heavenly beings. It’s also
worth noting that what Satan said he was doing prior to presenting himself
before Yahweh (i.e., “going to and fro in the
land, and from walking up and down on it”) is strikingly similar to what, in Zech. 1:7-11, we’re told
certain heavenly beings were commissioned by Yahweh to do (i.e., “walk up and down in the land”).
What further supports this
understanding of the nature of “the Satan” of Job 1-2 is the remarkable degree
of power manifested in the events he brought about in his attempt to get Job to
curse God. Notice that, in Job 1:11, the Satan
first tells Yahweh that if he
(Yahweh) were to use his “hand” (or power) to “touch” all that Job had, Job
would curse God to his face. But then, we’re told that Yahweh permits Satan to
use his (Satan’s) “hand,” or power,
to do this instead (“Behold, all that he has is in your hand. Only against him do not
stretch out your hand”). After the Satan departs from God’s
presence, we then read in verses 13-19 that the following tragic events occur:
the Sabeans steal Job’s oxen and donkeys and strike down the servants, the “fire
of God” falls from heaven and burns up the sheep and the servants and consumes
them, the Chaldeans raid Job’s camels and strike down the servants, and all of
Job’s children are killed when “a great wind” destroys the house of Job’s
oldest son (in which all of his sons and daughters were present).
The
clear implication of what we read in these verses is that, just as Satan used
his power to strike Job “with loathsome sores” (2:7), so Satan used his power
to bring about the devastating events described in Job 1:13-19. It’s also
implied that the only reason Satan
wasn’t able to afflict Job before being given permission by God to do so was
because Job was, at that time, under God’s special protection (as indicated by
the words, ”Have you not put a hedge around him and his house and all
that he has, on every side?”).
Based on all of the above considerations, I think
we have good reason to believe (and no good reason to deny) that “the Satan”
referred to in the first two chapters of Job is an intelligent, self-aware entity who belongs to the same
general order of created, superhuman beings referred to elsewhere as the “host
of heaven.” The Satan of Job 1-2 (and Zechariah 3:1-2) is, in other words, the
same kind of celestial, superhuman being as Michael or Gabriel (or the unnamed
being referred to in Zech. 3:1-5 as “the angel of Yahweh”).
So what are the implications
of this? Well, insofar as it’s reasonable to believe that “the Satan” (haś·śā·ṭān) of Job
1-2 and Zech. 3:1-2 is the same being as “the Satan” of the Greek Scriptures
(i.e., the being referred to as “Satanas,” with the definite article), then
it’s reasonable to believe that “the Satan” of the Greek Scriptures is a
superhuman celestial being who belongs to the same order of beings constituting
the “host of heaven” (it’s also worth keeping in mind that, in the LXX, the title “haś·śā·ṭān” is always translated as “tou diabolou” – i.e., “the devil” or “the Adversary”). And in light of the conclusion at which we arrived in the
last installment of this study, it’s reasonable to believe that “the Adversary”
referred to throughout the Greek Scriptures is the same superhuman being
referred to as “the Satan” in Job 1-2 and Zech. 3:1-2. That is, “the Satan”
referred to in the verses quoted at the beginning of this installment of our
study is the same being whom God allowed to afflict Job, and who Zechariah saw
standing at Joshua’s right hand to accuse him.
To test this view, let’s consider two verses from Luke’s
Gospel Account in which we find references to “the Satan” (tou Satanas). In
Luke 13:16 we read that Christ declared the following:
“Now this woman – being a daughter of Abraham,
whom Satan binds, lo! eighteen years – must she not be loosed from this bond on
the Sabbath day?”
In this verse, the “Satan”
referred to by Christ was clearly understood by Christ to be in some sense
responsible for the chronic infirmity of the woman whom he healed on the
Sabbath. Similarly, we read in Acts 10:38 that Peter also believed that this
being (whom he referred to as “the Adversary”) was in some way responsible for the
afflictions and physical disorders of those whom Christ healed during his
earthly ministry:
“Jesus from
Nazareth, as God anoints Him with holy spirit and power, Who passed through as
a benefactor and healer of all those who
are tyrannized over by the Adversary, for God was with Him.”
Could the individual referred
to in these verses as “(the) Satan” and “the Adversary” have been a human being
(or a group of human beings)? No. There is no evidence that any humans were in any
way responsible for all of the various afflictions and diseases of those who
were healed by Christ during his earthly ministry. However, we do know that the “Satan” referred to in
Job 1-2 had the power to afflict humans with disease (and, as noted earlier,
the implication of what we read in Job 1:9-10 is that the only reason Satan wasn’t
able to afflict Job without God’s permission is because Job was, at that time,
under God’s special protection). Thus, apart from any compelling evidence to
the contrary, it’s reasonable to conclude that the “Satan” whom Christ believed
was responsible for the chronic disease of the woman he healed on the Sabbath
(and whom Peter believed was responsible for the afflictions and physical
disorders of those whom Christ healed throughout his earthly ministry) was the
same “Satan” who was permitted by God to afflict Job.
In further support of this understanding of the “Satan”
referred to by Christ in Luke 13:16 are Christ’s words in Luke 22:31-32. There,
we read that Christ declared the following to Peter:
“Simon, Simon, lo! Satan claims you men, to sift
you as grain. Yet I besought concerning you, that your faith may not be
defaulting.”
The implication of these words
of Christ to Peter is that Satan wanted to expose the weakness of Peter’s faith
with a trial that would “sift [him] as grain” (and which would result in the
“defaulting” of his faith in Christ). This is strikingly similar to what took
place in the life of Job (when “the Satan” similarly sought to expose what he
believed to be the superficiality of Job’s loyalty to, and love for, God). Thus,
apart from any compelling evidence to the contrary, it’s reasonable to conclude
that the Satan who we’re told “claimed” the disciples and desired to “sift” Peter
“as grain” (and thereby cause his faith to “be defaulting”) is the same Satan
who, in an attempt to expose Job’s faith in God as something that depended
entirely on the blessings he was receiving from God’s hand, was permitted to
bring adversity into Job’s life.
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