In a prayer addressed to his God and
Father shortly before his arrest in the Garden of Gethsemane, we read that
Christ declared the following in John 17:1-3:
“Father, come has the hour.
Glorify your Son, that your Son should be glorifying you, according as you gave
him authority over all flesh, that everything which you have given to him, he
should be giving it to them, even life eonian. Now it is eonian life that they may know you,
the only true God, and him whom you commission, Jesus Christ.[1]
Notice what Christ didn’t say in verse 3. He didn’t say,
“Now it is eonian life that they may know us,
the only true God.” No, our Lord instead declared, “Now it is eonian life
that they may know you, the only true
God, AND him whom you commission, Jesus Christ.” Christ clearly
distinguished himself from (and understood himself to be distinct from) “the
only true God” to whom he was praying. And since Christ was addressing the Father alone in these verses, it’s
clear that the Father alone is “the
only true God.”
In support of this truth, consider the following
scripturally-informed argument:
1. The God whom Christ referred to as “my God and your God” when
speaking to Mary Magdalene (John 20:17) is the God before whom Israel was
commanded to have no other gods, and is the only true God.
2. The God whom Christ referred to as “my God and your God” in
John 20:17 is the Father alone.
3. The Father alone is the God before
whom Israel was commanded to have no other gods, and is the only true God.
Since the
Father alone is the only true God, it follows that Christ isn’t the only true God. Rather, Jesus is the Son of the only true God. That is, Yahweh – the only
true God – is the Father of the Lord Jesus Christ. Concerning Jesus’ being the Son of God, we find this truth explicitly
affirmed on several occasions during Christ’s earthly ministry. Consider, for
example, the declaration of the disciples after Christ walked on water: “Truly, you are God’s Son!”(Matt. 14:33) We also have Peter’s well-known
confession in Matthew 16:16: “You are the Christ, the Son of the living God.” And the most important
testimony concerning Jesus’ identity was undoubtedly provided by God himself: “This is my Son, the beloved,
in whom I delight” (Matt. 3:17).
In Luke 1:31-32 (cf. Mark 5:7), we read the following concerning
Jesus Christ’s identity: ”And lo! you shall be conceiving and
be pregnant and be bringing forth a Son, and you shall be calling His name
Jesus. He shall be great, and Son of the Most High shall He be called.
And the Lord God shall be giving Him the throne of David.” The “Lord God” and “Most
High” being referred to in these verses is, of course, Yahweh. And insofar as Jesus is the
Son of the Most High, he cannot be identified with the
Most High himself. Rather, he must be distinguished from the
Most High. And since Jesus is not
the Lord God/Most High, he is necessarily subordinate to the Lord God/Most High.
Consider, for example, the following two arguments:
1. No one can be “the Most High” and “the only true God” without being greater than all and thus worthy of the worship of all.
2. The Father alone is greater than all and thus worthy of the worship of all (John 10:29; 14:28; cf. John 4:21-24).
3. The Father alone (and not his Son, Jesus Christ) is the Most High and the only true God.
Consider, for example, the following two arguments:
1. No one can be “the Most High” and “the only true God” without being greater than all and thus worthy of the worship of all.
2. The Father alone is greater than all and thus worthy of the worship of all (John 10:29; 14:28; cf. John 4:21-24).
3. The Father alone (and not his Son, Jesus Christ) is the Most High and the only true God.
1. He who is referred to as the “Lord God” and “Most High” in
Luke 1:32 (Yahweh) was never made
Lord, and has never been given all
authority in heaven and on earth (he’s always been Lord, and
has always had all authority).
2. Following his death and resurrection, Jesus Christ was made Lord
of all (Acts 2:36; Rom. 14:9) and was given all authority in
heaven and on earth (Matt. 28:18).
3. Jesus Christ is not the Lord God/Most High (and is thus not “the
only true God”).
Now, most
Christians are very much opposed to the truth that the Father alone is the one and only true God.
Instead of affirming this truth, they hold to the doctrine of the “Trinity”
(and the inseparably related doctrine of the “deity of Christ”). By the
doctrine of the Trinity I mean the Christian teaching that the one God whose
existence is affirmed in Scripture is identical with three distinct “eternal persons” (i.e., “God the Father,” “God the Son” and “God the Holy Spirit”) who
are each thought to share
the same divine “substance,” “essence” or “nature.” And by the doctrine of the “deity
of Christ,” I mean the Christian teaching that Jesus Christ is an uncreated
person who has eternally shared the same divine “essence” or “nature” as his
God and Father, and that the title “God” can thus be applied to Jesus in the same absolute, unqualified
sense that it applies to the Father. It is this idea that most Christians have
in mind when they affirm that “Jesus is God.”
By
identifying the three supposed members of this “triune God” with the only true
God referred to by Christ in John 17:3, Trinitarian Christians believe they’re
able to avoid the conclusion that the Father alone is the only true God to whom
Christ was praying. However, as I’ve argued in greater depth elsewhere, the only possible
referent for the words “only true God” in John 17:3 is the
Father alone (and not a “tri-personal” being). But why does it matter
whether one affirms or denies that the Father alone (and not a “tri-personal”
being, or Jesus Christ) is the only true God?
Well, insofar as God is the Supreme Being (and is thus of supreme
importance), it follows that what we believe or disbelieve concerning
his identity matters, and that we should do our best to seek the truth
concerning who, exactly, God is (while, at the same time, rejecting anything
that is false concerning his nature and identity). In addition to this more
general point, I think there are two additional reasons why it matters.
The first reason most directly concerns God’s covenant people,
Israel. I don’t think anyone could deny that God’s identity is something that
matters greatly (or ought to matter
greatly) to Israel. This is, perhaps, most clearly evident from the fact
that the very first of the “Ten Commandments” given by God to Israel
is, “You shall have no other gods before Me” (Exodus 20:1-3).
Given the great importance of this precept, there can be no question that what Israelites
believe or disbelieve concerning the identity of the God before whom Israel was
commanded to have no other gods is something that matters a great deal.[2] For an
Israelite to believe that some person or being other than the God before whom Israel is commanded to have no other
gods (i.e., the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ) would make him or her
guilty of breaking this first commandment. And apart from repentance and the
receiving of forgiveness for this grave sin, having a false god before the only
true God would result in an Israelite failing to receive eonian life. In other
words, for an Israelite to reject the
Father alone as his or her God – and to worship in his place the “triune
God” of Christianity (or some other being besides the “only true God”) – would
disqualify an Israelite from living and reigning with Christ during the eon to
come.
The second reason why one’s beliefs concerning the identity of the
only true God matter has to do with the gospel that was entrusted to the
apostle Paul to herald among the nations (and through which one is called by
God to become a member of that company of saints that Paul referred
to in his letters as “the body of Christ”). As I argued in my article “Paul’s
Gospel and the Death-Denying Doctrines that Contradict It” (click here for the article), the
Christian belief that Jesus Christ is God in the same absolute, unqualified
sense as the Father is not compatible with the belief that Jesus – in an act of perfect obedience to God – died on the cross for our sins. They are
mutually-exclusive beliefs. The one true God (i.e., Yahweh, the God before whom
Israel is to have no other gods) – has always existed as “the living God.” And
insofar as Yahweh has always been – and will always be – the living God, he necessarily cannot die. Thus, if Jesus Christ were
the same, eternally-existent being as the God whom Paul referred to as “the
living and true God” (1 Thess. 1:9), then Jesus couldn’t have really died on
the cross (only his body would’ve
died). But this would contradict the fact that Jesus “died for our sins”
(which, again, is the first essential element of Paul’s gospel).
Thus,
in regard to believing Paul’s gospel and becoming a member of the body of Christ, it matters greatly whether one
affirms or denies that Jesus is God in the same absolute, unqualified sense as the
Father.
If (in accord with the Christian doctrine of the Trinity) one believes that
both Jesus and the Father are “the only true God,” then it’s going to be very
difficult – if not impossible – to believe that Christ died (became lifeless)
and was subsequently restored to a living existence by God. And this, in turn,
means that a belief in the Trinity and the deity of Christ is an obstacle to believing the gospel through
which people may be saved during this current administration.
The meaning of the title “God”
As noted
earlier, most Christians are very much opposed to the truth that the Father alone is the one and only true God. In accord with this fact, I recently
read an article by a certain Christian teacher that attempts to prove that
Jesus Christ is not “merely” the Son of the living God (as he’s correctly
identified by the apostle Peter in Matthew 16:16), but also the living God himself. The argument
being defended in the article basically went as follows:
1. The term “God” is applied
to Jesus in certain verses of Scripture (e.g., Isaiah 9:6; Heb. 1:8).
2. Jesus is either a false
god or the only true God.
3. Jesus is not a false god.
4. Therefore, Jesus is also the
only true God.
In order to demonstrate what, exactly,
is wrong with this argument (and why it fails to establish its conclusion), we
need to first consider the meaning of the Hebrew and Greek words translated
“God” in Scripture. The term translated “God” in the Greek Scriptures is the
noun Theós (θεός), and may have been derived from the verb
tithemi (to place, arrange or dispose of things, events and persons).
Understood in this way, Theós would mean, “placer,”
“arranger” or “disposer.” In Dr. Spiros Zodhiates’ Lexicon
to the New Testament, we read the following concerning this term: “The most probable deriv. is from the verb theo,
to place (see tithemi, Str. 5087). The heathen thought the gods were
disposers (theteres, placers) and formers of all things.”
In the Greek Scriptures, Theós is used as the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew title “el” (or “elohim,” which is the plural form of the word). This term is, evidently, the original title for Yahweh, the Creator of all (Genesis 1; cf. 2:4). In fact, given that Eve referred to Yahweh by the use of the title Elohim (Gen. 2:3; 4:25), we have good reason to believe that this title was originally used by human beings for Yahweh exclusively (it also remained the most commonly-used title for Yahweh in Scripture). But what, exactly, should we understand the title El/Elohim to mean? Although there are different theories among Hebrew scholars concerning what, exactly, this title should be understood to mean, I think the most likely view is that it expresses the fact that Yahweh is the all-powerful “Subjector,” “Disposer” or “Arbiter” of all things. And assuming that the Greek equivalent theós means something like “Placer,” “Arranger” or “Disposer,” it’s reasonable to understand the original Hebrew title as having a similar (if not identical) meaning.
When we understand the Hebrew and Greek terms translated “God” in accord with the original and primary meaning of these titles (i.e., when we understand them as a way of expressing the fact that Yahweh is, in an absolute and unqualified sense, the Subjector, Disposer or Placer), the implication is that there is no other God except Yahweh (since there is no other Disposer or Placer in the absolute and unqualified sense of the term). It is in accord with this original and most basic meaning of the title “God” that Jesus could address his Father as “the only true God” (John 17:3). This is further confirmed by the meaning of the Greek term translated “true” here (alēthinos). This term is defined in Thayer’s Greek Lexicon as follows: “That which has not only the name and semblance, but the real nature corresponding to the name, and in every respect corresponding to the idea signified by the name, real and true, genuine.” And in HELPS Word-studies, we read the following on the meaning of the term: “Alēthinós (“substantially true”) refers to what is essentially true – connecting (visible) fact to its underlying reality.” When used in reference to the Father’s status as God, it means that he is the only being who is God in the primary and fullest sense of the term.
In the Greek Scriptures, Theós is used as the Greek equivalent of the Hebrew title “el” (or “elohim,” which is the plural form of the word). This term is, evidently, the original title for Yahweh, the Creator of all (Genesis 1; cf. 2:4). In fact, given that Eve referred to Yahweh by the use of the title Elohim (Gen. 2:3; 4:25), we have good reason to believe that this title was originally used by human beings for Yahweh exclusively (it also remained the most commonly-used title for Yahweh in Scripture). But what, exactly, should we understand the title El/Elohim to mean? Although there are different theories among Hebrew scholars concerning what, exactly, this title should be understood to mean, I think the most likely view is that it expresses the fact that Yahweh is the all-powerful “Subjector,” “Disposer” or “Arbiter” of all things. And assuming that the Greek equivalent theós means something like “Placer,” “Arranger” or “Disposer,” it’s reasonable to understand the original Hebrew title as having a similar (if not identical) meaning.
When we understand the Hebrew and Greek terms translated “God” in accord with the original and primary meaning of these titles (i.e., when we understand them as a way of expressing the fact that Yahweh is, in an absolute and unqualified sense, the Subjector, Disposer or Placer), the implication is that there is no other God except Yahweh (since there is no other Disposer or Placer in the absolute and unqualified sense of the term). It is in accord with this original and most basic meaning of the title “God” that Jesus could address his Father as “the only true God” (John 17:3). This is further confirmed by the meaning of the Greek term translated “true” here (alēthinos). This term is defined in Thayer’s Greek Lexicon as follows: “That which has not only the name and semblance, but the real nature corresponding to the name, and in every respect corresponding to the idea signified by the name, real and true, genuine.” And in HELPS Word-studies, we read the following on the meaning of the term: “Alēthinós (“substantially true”) refers to what is essentially true – connecting (visible) fact to its underlying reality.” When used in reference to the Father’s status as God, it means that he is the only being who is God in the primary and fullest sense of the term.
Before moving on to consider the secondary sense in which the terms translated “God” are used in Scripture, I want to first respond to a claim that some Trinitarian Christians make in support of their “tri-personal” view of God. The claim I have in mind
involves appealing to the fact that the most commonly-used title for
Yahweh in the Hebrew Scriptures (“Elohim”) is plural, and that the plurality
of the term suggests that Yahweh is not one person but rather multiple persons. Although it’s true that elohim is a plural noun,
the plural form of a noun can, in the Hebrew Scriptures, be used in two
different ways: (1) it can denote numerical
plurality (a “numerical plural”) or (2) it can be used for the
purpose of emphasis, intensity and amplification (an “intensive plural”).[3]
The
common characteristic of intensive plurals is that they have a plural suffix while denoting
singular objects, and thus receive singular adjectives and verbs.
These characteristics indicate that the plural form of the noun is not being
used as a numerical plural. In
contrast, a plural verb (as well as a plural suffix and plural adjective) is
used to denote something that is numerically plural. The use
of singular verbs and adjectives with the plural noun elohim is exactly what we
would expect if the term were being used as an intensive plural and not a
numerical plural. It indicates that the term elohim – when used as a title for
Yahweh – should be understood as an intensive plural rather than as a numerical
plural (which, again, is for emphasis or intensification). In fact, we can know
for certain that, when applied to single individuals, the title elohim was not
understood to denote a “plurality of persons.” In 1 Kings 11:15, 33, for
example, the title elohim is applied to the goddess Ashtoreth (who was thought
to be a single divine individual, like Artemis or Zeus).
On the other hand, when the
plural elohim is being used as a numerical
plural, it refers to multiple gods (and is usually translated
to reflect this fact); see, for example, Genesis 31:34; 35:2, 4; Exodus 12:12;
18:11; 23:13; Deut. 6:14; 13:7; etc. Thus, if we were to understand elohim as a
numerical plural in Genesis 1:1 (despite the singular verb that is used) it would mean that multiple gods created the heavens and the earth,
and would therefore prove too much for the Trinitarian (who
doesn’t believe that Yahweh is actually multiple “gods”). But the fact that,
when referring to the one God of Israel, the term elohim is consistently
translated “God” (rather than “gods”) means that the translator correctly
understood that it was being used as an intensive
plural rather than as a numerical
plural.[4]
Psalm 45:6-7 is a helpful passage
when it comes to determining whether or not the title Elohim should be
understood as a numerical plural or an intensive plural when used as a title for Yahweh.
In this
Messianic prophecy (which is later quoted in Hebrews 1:8-9) we read the
following:
“Your
throne, O Elohim, is for the eon and further; a sceptre of equity
is the sceptre of Your kingdom. You love righteousness and hate
wickedness; therefore Elohim, Your Elohim, has anointed You with the
oil of elation beyond Your partners.”
In verse 6 of
this prophecy, we find the Messiah, Jesus, being referred to as “Elohim.” But Jesus Christ is, of course, a single individual (and
not a “multi-personal being” or a “plurality of persons”). Thus, the title
“Elohim” can’t be understood as a
numerical plural here. Moreover, the same title is, in v. 7, applied to the God
of Jesus (“…therefore Elohim, Your Elohim…”).
Since we know that the God of Jesus (i.e., Yahweh) is also the Father of Jesus – and since we know that
the Father of Jesus is not a “multi-personal being” (a fact which even Trinitarians must acknowledge) – we can conclude that,
when applied to Jesus’ Father, Yahweh, the title “Elohim” should be understood
as an intensive plural rather than as a numerical plural. For again, the God and
Father of Jesus Christ is not a “plurality
of persons” or “multi-personal being.”
Click here for part two: https://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2020/02/refuting-argument-for-deity-of-jesus_16.html
[1] It’s commonly
believed that, in v. 3, our Lord was defining “eonian life” by equating it with knowing God and his Son.
However, as A.E. Knoch pointed out in his commentary (see page 167), Christ was
instead revealing the ultimate purpose
for which eonian life will be given to believers:
“The knowledge of
God is not given as the definition of eonian life, but eonian life is
imparted that they may be knowing Him. Eonian life is life
during the eons of Christ's reign and glory. Two methods are used by Him to
acquaint His saints with Himself. First, they are left to taste the sorrows of
sin at a distance from Him. Then, in the eons of the eons, in glorious
fellowship with His Son, each high tide of bliss will mark some new discovery
of His love, some fresh token of His affection.”
[2] It must be emphasized
that we who are members of the body of Christ are not under the law given by
God to Israel (for those in the body of Christ – whether circumcised or
uncircumcised – aren’t members of God’s covenant people). Nevertheless, the
precepts of the law are referred to by Paul as “holy and just and good” (Rom.
7:12), and if anyone among God’s covenant people were to become guilty of
breaking this commandment, they would be justly deserving of death.
[3]
Here are just a few examples of the use of the plural
for emphasis and intensity: Gen 4:10 (“bloods”); Gen 19:11 (“blindnesses”); Gen
27:46 (“lives”) Psalm 45:15 (“gladnesses”); Ez. 25:15, 17 (“vengeances”), etc.
For some examples of the intensive plural being used in reference to the one
God (besides the title elohim), see Job 35:10; Psalm 149:2; Is 54:5 (literally,
“Makers”) and Eccl. 12:1 (“Creators”). Again, the plurality of the word simply
intensifies it.
[4]
In the NET Bible notes for Genesis 1:1,
we read the following remarks concerning the use of the plural noun Elohim
(emphasis mine): “This frequently
used Hebrew name for God (אֱלֹהִים,’elohim ) is
a plural form. When it refers to the one true God, the singular verb is
normally used, as here. The plural form indicates majesty; the name
stresses God’s sovereignty and incomparability – he is the “God of gods.”
Similarly, the NIV Study Bible has the following
(emphasis mine): “The Hebrew
noun Elohim is plural but the verb is singular, a normal usage in the OT when
the reference is to the one true God. This use of the plural expresses
intensification rather than number and has been called the plural of
majesty, or of potentiality.”
It should be
noted that both the NET Bible and NIV Study Bible could be considered
“mainstream” (and “pro-Trinitarian”) in regard to the doctrinal views they
support in their notes. Given their clear support for the doctrine of the
Trinity elsewhere, it’s significant that these Bibles do not attempt to argue
that the use of the plural term elohim supports this doctrine.
Aaron, could you comment on the use of Elohim in Gen 1:26-28, used with pronouns "we" and "our", as in "Make will We humanity in Our image, and according to Our likeness". Who is in view with the plural usage of elohim in those verses? Jeff Seefried
ReplyDeleteIf you could respond by email as well, I'd appreciate it. My email is jpseef10@yahoo.com
Hi Jeff,
DeleteConcerning the use of "we" and "our" in Gen. 1:26-28 (as well as 3:22 and 11:7), here's an excerpt from another article I wrote:
"Some see the word “us” as a “veiled reference” to either a multi-personal God (consisting of Father, Son and Holy Spirit) or to God and a pre-existent Son (who was either directly or indirectly involved in the creation of humanity and the confusing of humanity’s language at Babel). However, I don’t think that either Moses or the original readers of this book understood the “us” to imply either a multi-personal God or a pre-existent Son of God. A more likely interpretation of these verses is that God was speaking to, and on behalf of, the celestial members of his heavenly court.
This is the view found in the NIV Study Bible as well as in the NET Bible (http://bible.org/netbible/), both of which affirm the pre-existence of Christ. In the NET Bible notes under Genesis 1:26 we read,
In 2 Sam 24:14 David uses the plural as representative of all Israel, and in Isaiah 6:8 the Lord speaks on behalf of his heavenly court. In its ancient Israelite context the plural is most naturally understood as referring to God and his heavenly court (see 1 Kings 22:19-22; Isaiah 6:1-8). (The most well-known members of this court are God’s messengers, or angels.) If this is the case, God invites the heavenly court to participate in the creation of humankind (perhaps in the role of offering praise, see Job 38:7), but he himself is the one who does the actual creative work (v. 27). Of course, this view does assume that the members of the heavenly court possess the divine “image” in some way. Since the image is closely associated with rulership, perhaps they share the divine image in that they, together with God and under his royal authority, are the executive authority over the world.
The Hebrew people were not only monotheists in the most natural and straightforward sense of the word (believing that God was a single individual or person), they also believed that Yahweh, the one God, dwelled in heaven with a countless multitude of created, personal beings that served and worshiped him (see, for example, Job 1:6-12; Psalm 82; 89:5-7; 1 Kings 22:19-22; Isaiah 6:1-8). Consequently, it is natural to understand these verses as a reference to the participation and involvement of these celestial beings in God’s work in some way. To insert either a multi-personal God or a pre-existent Jesus into the words “us” is simply unwarranted."
Hope that helps.
Aaron