John 8:58
53 Not you are greater than our father
Abraham who died! And the prophets died. Whom are you making yourself to
be?"
54 Jesus answered, "If I should ever be glorifying Myself, My glory is nothing. It is My Father Who is glorifying Me, of Whom you are saying that He is your God.
55 And you know Him not, yet I am acquainted with Him, and if I should be saying that I am not acquainted with Him, I shall be like you, a liar. But I am acquainted with Him and I am keeping His word.
56 Abraham, your father, exults that he may become acquainted with My day, and he was acquainted with it and rejoiced."
57 The Jews, then, said to Him, "You have not as yet lived fifty years, and you have seen Abraham!"
58 Jesus said to them, “Verily, verily, I am saying to you, Ere Abraham came into being, I am.”
59 They pick up stones, then, that they should be casting them at Him. Yet Jesus was hid and came out of the sanctuary. And passing through the midst of them, He went and thus passed by.
54 Jesus answered, "If I should ever be glorifying Myself, My glory is nothing. It is My Father Who is glorifying Me, of Whom you are saying that He is your God.
55 And you know Him not, yet I am acquainted with Him, and if I should be saying that I am not acquainted with Him, I shall be like you, a liar. But I am acquainted with Him and I am keeping His word.
56 Abraham, your father, exults that he may become acquainted with My day, and he was acquainted with it and rejoiced."
57 The Jews, then, said to Him, "You have not as yet lived fifty years, and you have seen Abraham!"
58 Jesus said to them, “Verily, verily, I am saying to you, Ere Abraham came into being, I am.”
59 They pick up stones, then, that they should be casting them at Him. Yet Jesus was hid and came out of the sanctuary. And passing through the midst of them, He went and thus passed by.
In a Nutshell:
Rather than claiming to have been alive before Abraham was (as the unbelieving
Jews erroneously interpreted him as claiming), Jesus was enigmatically alluding
to the fact that he was the promised “seed” spoken of by God in Gen. 3:15. The
divine promise of a future “seed” was, of course, made long before Abraham
“came into being,” and before Abraham “became acquainted with” Christ’s “day”
(which is something that occurred when Abraham believed God’s promise to him
concerning his future “seed,” in whom all the nations will be blessed). Christ
was, in other words, implying that he was the promised Messiah - and thus
superior to Abraham - rather than claiming to have been alive before Abraham.
Expanded Explanation: For
those who believe in the pre-existence of Christ, the words translated as “I
am” (egō eimi) in v.
58 are viewed as implying that, before Abraham existed, Jesus pre-existed as
either Yahweh himself or as a celestial being who served as Yahweh’s
representative. However, the expression “egō eimi” was
simply a common way of designating oneself; it did not mean one was claiming to
be Yahweh or Yahweh’s representative.
The very same Greek expression is used in the next chapter by the man Jesus
healed of blindness. There, we read that this man kept telling the people, “I
am he” (egō eimi), in
response to his being questioned (John 9:9). Although this man’s response could
just as legitimately be translated “I am” as Jesus’ words in chapter 8, no one
thinks this man was claiming to be Yahweh, or even to have been Yahweh’s
representative.
The
Greek phrase translated in John 8:58 as “I am” occurs many other times in the
Greek Scriptures, and is often translated as “I am he” or something equivalent
in meaning (for “I am he,” see Mark 13:6; Luke 21:8; John 8:24, 28; 13:19;
18:5, 6 and 8; for “It is I,” see Matt. 14:27; Mark 6:50; John 6:20). Translating
egō eimi as “I
am” (rather than as “I am he”) in John 8:58 seems to have more to do with the translator having a “theological axe to grind” than anything else, since “I
am he” would be both a grammatically valid translation as well as more
consistent with how the expression is normally translated.
Moreover, in order for Christ to have been referring
to himself as “Yahweh” in John 8:58, he would need to have used different words
than he did. The Septuagint translation of Exodus 3:14 (Lexham LXX Interlinear)
reads as follows:
καὶ εἶπεν ὁ θεὸς πρὸς Μωυσῆν Ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν,
— said — God to Moses, I am the (One) (who) exists.",
καὶ εἶπεν Οὕτως ἐρεῖς τοῖς υἱοῖς Ισραηλ
And (then) he said, "Thus you will say to the sons of Israel,
Ὁ ὢν ἀπέσταλκέν με πρὸς ὑμᾶς.
`The (One) (who) exists has sent me to you.’".
So the Greek translation of God’s title was ho ōn (ὁ ὤν) rather than egō eimi (Ἐγώ εἰμι).
καὶ εἶπεν ὁ θεὸς πρὸς Μωυσῆν Ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν,
— said — God to Moses, I am the (One) (who) exists.",
καὶ εἶπεν Οὕτως ἐρεῖς τοῖς υἱοῖς Ισραηλ
And (then) he said, "Thus you will say to the sons of Israel,
Ὁ ὢν ἀπέσταλκέν με πρὸς ὑμᾶς.
`The (One) (who) exists has sent me to you.’".
So the Greek translation of God’s title was ho ōn (ὁ ὤν) rather than egō eimi (Ἐγώ εἰμι).
And God said to Moses, “I AM (egō eimi) THE BEING (ho ōn).”
And he said, “Say this to the people of Israel, ‘THE BEING (ho ōn)
has sent me to you’” (Ex 3:14, LXX). But in John 8:58, Christ does not
refer to himself as ho ōn (“the
being”). Rather, he said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you: before Abraham
came into being, I am (he) (egō eimi).”
There’s a big difference between merely saying “egō eimi” and “egō
eimi ho ōn.” The Greek expression egō eimi is, by itself, not
the divine name of God in Greek (which, again, is egō eimi ho ōn), nor
is it the shortened version of the name (which is ho ōn). In the LXX, God
never used the words egō eimi
alone as a means of self-designation. The title ho ōn - either by itself
or immediately following egō eimi - was how God identified himself.
Moreover, we can clearly see that the Jews didn’t consider the words “I am (he)” to be the name of God because they weren’t bothered by Jesus using it earlier in the chapter (John 8:24, 28). It definitely wasn’t a reaction to Jesus saying “egō eimi” or else they would have attempted to kill him at verse 24. In this verse, Jesus told the unbelieving Jews, “I told you that you would die in your sins, for unless you believe that I am he (egō eimi) you will die in your sins.” In response to this the unbelieving Jews asked, “Who are you?” Jesus then replied, “Just what I have been telling you from the beginning.” And what had he been telling them? Answer: that he was the one sent from God, and the one to whom the Scriptures bore witness. In chapter 5, Christ told the Jews, “You search the scriptures because you think that in them you have eonian life; and it is they that bear witness about me...” (v. 39). Similarly, in John 5:46-47 he told them, ”If you believed Moses, you would believe me; for he wrote of me. But if you do not believe his writings, how will you believe my words?”
Moreover, we can clearly see that the Jews didn’t consider the words “I am (he)” to be the name of God because they weren’t bothered by Jesus using it earlier in the chapter (John 8:24, 28). It definitely wasn’t a reaction to Jesus saying “egō eimi” or else they would have attempted to kill him at verse 24. In this verse, Jesus told the unbelieving Jews, “I told you that you would die in your sins, for unless you believe that I am he (egō eimi) you will die in your sins.” In response to this the unbelieving Jews asked, “Who are you?” Jesus then replied, “Just what I have been telling you from the beginning.” And what had he been telling them? Answer: that he was the one sent from God, and the one to whom the Scriptures bore witness. In chapter 5, Christ told the Jews, “You search the scriptures because you think that in them you have eonian life; and it is they that bear witness about me...” (v. 39). Similarly, in John 5:46-47 he told them, ”If you believed Moses, you would believe me; for he wrote of me. But if you do not believe his writings, how will you believe my words?”
So who was Christ claiming to be in John 8:58? As is
evident from John 8:24-25, the exact meaning of what is being said when someone
declared “egō eimi” is not necessarily inherent in the expression, but in many
cases needs to be supplied by the listener or reader. That is, when someone
used the Greek expression “egō eimi,” the listener (or reader) had to “fill in
the blank” in order to understand the exact claim that was being made. There
was clearly something being implied that Jesus did not directly state
when he declared “egō eimi” (“I
am he”) in v. 58. The exact claim that Jesus was making here must be inferred
by the listener/reader – and, I submit, this is done by taking into account
Jesus’ words in verse 56.
In v. 56, we read that Jesus told the unbelieving Jews,
“Abraham, your father, exults that he may
become acquainted with My day, and he was acquainted with it and rejoiced.” How
did Abraham “see” (or become “acquainted with”) the day of Christ? As is clear
from what is said in Hebrews 11:8-19 (cf. v. 39), we can conclude that Abraham
didn’t see/become acquainted with Christ’s “day” as a fulfilled reality.
Instead, Abraham became acquainted with this “day” by faith in God’s promise
concerning his (Abraham’s) future “seed.”
In Gen. Gen. 22:18 God promised Abraham, “Your seed shall take over the gateway of its enemies
and all the nations of the earth will bless themselves in your seed, inasmuch as you have hearkened to My voice” (see also Gen.
12:4, Gen. 26:4 and Gen. 28:14). God’s promise to Abraham
concerning his “seed” was a promise concerning Christ himself, who is the seed
of Abraham in whom all the kindreds of the earth will be blessed (Acts 3:25-26;
Gal. 3:16). Abraham believed God’s promises to him concerning his future seed
and, in that sense, Abraham “saw” or became acquainted with Christ’s “day”
(i.e., the time period when the promises made to Abraham concerning his seed
began to be fulfilled).
In light of John 8:56 (off of which Jesus is clearly
building in v. 58), it is evident that the implication in Jesus’ words
in v. 58 is the Messianic claim to be the one who had been promised by God before
Abraham was born. Significantly, Gen. 22:18 is not the first time Moses wrote
concerning Christ. Nor is Gen. 22:18 the first time that Christ was
prophetically referred to as the “seed” of someone. The first Messianic promise
in scripture (recorded by Moses) is found in Gen 3:15. In this verse we read of
a promised “seed” who, despite being injured by the serpent, would deal it a
mortal blow: “And I shall set enmity between you and the woman, and between your
seed and her Seed. He shall hurt you
in the head, and you shall hurt Him in the heel.”
Putting it all together, that which was implied in
Christ’s words in verse 58 (when he said “I am he”) may be understood as
follows: “Before Abraham came into being, I am he (who was promised/spoken of
by God).” This makes Jesus’
claim one of pre-eminence and not literal pre-existence (keep in mind that,
just a few verses before, the Jews had said to Jesus, “Are you greater than our father Abraham, who
died?”). By claiming to be the promised “seed” or offspring foretold by God
even before Abraham existed (Gen 3:15), Jesus was claiming to be greater than
Abraham (a fact which was inconceivable to the unbelieving Jews, since they did
not believe he was who he claimed to be; v. 53). And though Christ was and is
superior to Abraham, we have no more reason to think that he literally existed
before the patriarch was born than we have reason to believe that Abraham
literally “saw” the Messiah’s “day” nearly 2,000 years before Jesus was born
(John 8:56).
While the unbelieving Jews rightfully understood Jesus
to be making a Messianic claim (which is why they sought to kill him at this
time, and is also the basis of the charges that would later be brought against
him during his trial), they mistook his words to be an absurd claim to be
literally older than Abraham. This is yet another example of the unbelieving
Jews completely misunderstanding what Jesus was saying (just like how Jesus’
words were misunderstood when he said, “unless you eat the flesh of the Son of
Man and drink his blood, you have no life in you,” and “unless one is born
again, he cannot see the kingdom of God”). However, Jesus was no more claiming
to be older than Abraham than he was claiming that Abraham literally saw his
“day” thousands of years before he was born. He was claiming to be the same
“seed” promised to Abraham, but who was promised by God before Abraham came to
be.
John 17:5
"And now glorify
Thou Me, Father, with Thyself, with the glory which I had before the world is
with Thee."
In a Nutshell: When
Christ prayed that the Father would glorify him, he was referring to the
post-resurrection glory that he received because of his sacrificial death. The
sense in which Christ had this glory “before the world [was] with [the Father]”
is the same sense in which Christ was “slain from
the disruption of the world” (Rev. 13:8) and believers were given grace in
Christ Jesus “before times eonian” (2 Tim. 1:9). It was, in other words, in God’s foreknowledge that Christ
possessed his post-resurrection glory. That which was foreknown
by God to take place and central to his redemptive purpose could be spoken of
as having occurred long before actually taking place.
Expanded
Explanation: In reading this verse, we first need to ask, “What was the glory
that Christ was expecting to receive at some future time, when he prayed this
prayer to his Father?” By answering this question, I believe we will be able to
come to a more accurate understanding of this verse.
We know that there was a
glory that Christ had and manifested when performing miracles during his
earthly ministry (John 2:11; cf. 11:4), as well as a glory that he received at
the time of his transformation on the mount (Matt. 17:1-2; 2 Pet. 1:16-17).
However, we also know that there is a sense in which Christ had not yet
been glorified: “Now this he said about the spirit,
whom those who believed in him were to receive, for as yet the spirit had not
been given, because Jesus was not yet glorified” (John 7:39). Later, we
learn that the future glorification which Christ underwent was inseparably
connected with his death on the cross, and was fully realized in his
resurrection (John 12:6, 23; Luke 24:26; 1 Pet. 1:11, 21).
Hebrews 2:9 is
especially relevant here. There, we read, “Yet we are
observing Jesus, Who has been made some bit inferior to messengers (because
of the suffering of death, wreathed with GLORY and HONOR), so that in the
grace of God, He should be tasting death for the sake of everyone.”
It was “because of the
suffering of death” that Christ was “wreathed with glory and honor.” The
glory and honor that Christ received by virtue of his obedient death on the
cross was not a glory and honor that he had, or could’ve had, beforehand (at
least, not in any fully realized sense). This glory and honor was given to him
by God “BECAUSE” of the suffering of death.
Paul described the glory
and honor conferred onto Christ by God in Philippians 2:8-11. There, we read
that Christ became “obedient unto death, even the death
of the cross.” Paul went on to declare, “Wherefore
also [i.e., for this reason also], God highly
exalts Him, and graces Him with the name that is above every name, that in the name
of Jesus every knee should be bowing, celestial and terrestrial and
subterranean, and every tongue should be acclaiming that Jesus Christ is Lord,
for the glory of God, the Father.”
Do those who believe in
the preexistence of our Lord also believe that, from the
beginning of his existence, Christ had a “name that is above every name?” How
could this be, when this elevated status and honor was given to Christ BECAUSE
Christ was “obedient unto death, even the death of the cross?” It’s impossible
that this particular glory could’ve been given to Christ and enjoyed by him in
any realized sense at any time prior to his death and resurrection. And
yet, this is the very glory that Christ entered
into after he was roused from among the dead by his God and Father. I
hope the reader can now see the error of believing that, in John 17:5, Christ
was referring to a glory he personally and consciously enjoyed in a pre-existent
state. For the glory that Christ was expecting to receive (and to which he was
referring in John 17:5) was a glory that would be given to him by God because
of his obedient death. No other created being had been given (nor
ever WILL be given) this glory and honor.
So what did Christ mean
when he said that this was a glory which he “had before the world is with Thee?”
The answer is simple, and (unfortunately) shows how even highly intelligent
students of scripture who are “in the grip of a theory” can completely miss the
obvious because of a commitment to their own doctrinal presuppositions. In
Ephesians 1:4 Paul declared that the saints in the body of Christ were chosen
in Christ “before the disruption of the world.” Similarly, we read in 2 Timothy 1:9
that God’s grace was “given to us in Christ Jesus before times eonian…” Did we personally
and consciously exist at the time that we were “chosen,” and at the time that
God’s grace was “given to us?” Of course not. The only sense in which we
existed in order to be “chosen before the disruption of the world” and in order
to be given “grace before times eonian” was
in God’s foreknowledge, as a key part of his redemptive plan for the universe.
God foreknew those in
the body of Christ “before the disruption of the world” and “before times
eonian,” and thus it can be said that we were chosen in Christ and given grace
at this time.
In
Romans 8:29 we read that those in the body of Christ were foreknown by God and
designated beforehand. The saints in the body of Christ didn’t exist when they
were foreknown by God; had they existed, they wouldn’t have been “foreknown” by
God. They would’ve simply been “known.” Given this fact, consistency demands
that the same be said concerning Christ in light of what we read in 1 Peter
1:20. There, we’re told that Christ was “foreknown, indeed, before the disruption of the world, yet
manifested in the last times because of you…” (1 Peter 1:20).
Had Christ personally existed before the disruption of the world, he wouldn't
have been “foreknown” by God at this time. He would have simply been known.
As is the case with the saints in the body of Christ, the fact that God
foreknew Christ before the disruption of the world presupposes that Christ
didn’t actually exist before the disruption of the world.
In
response to my sharing my understanding of John 17:5 in a private email
correspondence with another believer (who is a proponent of the pre-existence view),
he responded with the following rhetorical question: “What sort of glory could
a mere concept have before the world was?” In
response to this objection, I remarked that if such an objection was really
valid, perhaps we should ask Paul in heaven, “How could concepts be
chosen in Christ before the disruption of the world?” Or, “What sort of grace
could concepts be given in Christ Jesus before times eonian?”
My response to this objection also involved quoting Rev. 13:8 from the Concordant Literal New Testament (which
the questioner had quoted approvingly on several occasions): “And
all who are dwelling on the earth will be worshiping [the wild beast], everyone
whose name is not written in the scroll of life of the Lambkin slain
from the disruption of the world.”
If the objector had no trouble
believing that Christ had been “slain from the disruption of the world,” then
he should have had no trouble believing that Christ could have been glorified with
God before the world was. Not surprisingly, my friend did not follow up with
any further objections after this. I can only assume that he realized that, in
whatever sense one could say that Christ was “slain from the disruption of the
world,” one could also affirm that Christ had been glorified before the world was. And, of course, the only sense in which Christ
could be said to have been slain before the disruption of the world was in
God’s foreknowledge, as the central figure in his redemptive plan. And in the same way,
it was in God’s foreknowledge that Christ was glorified before the world was. Since Christ was “foreknown, indeed, before the disruption of the world,” it follows that Christ’s being
glorified after his death was also part of God’s foreknowledge.
Further support for this
understanding of John 17:5 is that Christ went on to say in John 17:22, “And I have given
them the glory which Thou has given Me, that they may be one, according as
We are One…” Notice
here that the same glory that Christ prayed that God would give him is spoken
of as if he already possessed it. And not only that, but this glory
is spoken of as if it had already been given to his disciples (and from verses
20-21 we know that the disciples of which Christ was speaking included those
who weren’t even alive yet!). And in v. 24, Christ prayed, “Father, those whom Thou
hast given Me, I will that, where I am, they also may be with Me, that
they may be beholding My glory which Thou hast given Me, for Thou lovest Me
before the disruption of the world.”
Was Christ literally in
a future time and place when he spoke these words, and expressing the desire
that his disciples could be there too to see him in a glorified state that was
present to him but still future to them? Was Christ confused during his
prayer? Not at all; this was simply a figurative way of speaking. In both
cases, something that is certain to happen and central to God’s plan (and which
had “already occurred” in God’s foreknowledge) is spoken of as if it had
already taken place. In v. 5 Christ spoke as if he had been glorified before
the world existed, and in v. 24 he spoke as if his glorification (and his being
present at the location of his glorification) was a present reality, at the
time of his prayer (“…where I am, they also may be with me”). This was simply a
figurative way of speaking that emphasized how certain Christ’s glorification
was, and how central it was, and has always been, to God’s plan. Things
that are certain to exist or take place, and which are central to God's plan,
are sometimes spoken of in scripture as if they already exist, or have already
been accomplished. When we keep this in mind, Jesus’ words are easily
harmonized with the fact that his existence as God's Son began at the time of
his conception. Jesus was glorified before the world existed in God's divine
foreknowledge, as the center of God’s redemptive plan.
Excellent research! Jesus was the promised First Born, the pre-eminent child in God’s family, and the one who paves the way for all of mankind to become children of God as well. Thank you for your excellent articles on a much neglected topic that is subject to incredible bias
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