[For part one, click here: http://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2020/11/a-defense-of-israels-expectation-part.html]
Objections
considered
One reason why many
Christians believe that a rebuilt temple and reinstituted sacrificial system
would not have divine approval (whether in this eon or the next) is based on the commonly-held belief that the law given by
God to Israel ended nearly 2,000 years ago (either at the time of Christ’s
death, or at the destruction of the second temple in 70 AD). For example, commenting on my article concerning John’s expectation, one reader wrote
that “…70 AD is crucial
to understanding that the Law has been fulfilled and is no longer part of God's
plan for the rest of the ages.”
When this reader
referred to the law as having been “fulfilled,” I assume that she was referring
to the following words of Christ in Matthew 5:17-20:
”You should not infer
that I came to demolish the law or the prophets. I came not to demolish, but to
fulfill. For verily, I am saying to you, Till heaven and earth should be
passing by, one iota or one serif may by no means be passing by from the law
till all should be occurring.”
However, this passage in no way proves that “the Law is no longer
part of God’s plan for the rest of the ages.” For Christ to have come
to “demolish” the law and the prophets would mean that he came to put an
end to them, and make them no longer applicable to (or authoritative for)
Israel. But this is the very thing that Christ declared he didn’t come
to do. Instead, he came to “fulfill” them. Although many Christians interpret the word “fulfill” to mean “bring an end to,”
such an interpretation is untenable (as it would essentially have Christ
contradicting himself by declaring that he didn’t come to put an end to the law
or the prophets, but to put an end to them).
When a certain
prophecy is “fulfilled,” that which was written or spoken by the prophet is not
“ended” or “terminated”; rather, that which was prophesied actually
occurs or is brought about. It is, in other words, carried out,
or carried into effect. Thus, for the law and the prophets to be
“fulfilled” (or “made full”) by Christ involves that which is written in the
law and the prophets being fully carried out by Christ (such that it actually
occurs and is brought about). And we know from the prophets that the law given
to Israel will continue to be in effect during the eon to come (e.g., Isaiah
2:3; 66:22-23; Jer. 31:33; Ezekiel 36:27; 37:24; 44:15-17, 24; 45:21, 25; Micah
4:1-2; Zech. 14:16-18; etc.). Thus, it follows that the passing by of the law
given to Israel cannot occur before the next eon ends. Until “heaven
and earth should be passing by,” the following words spoken by Christ in his
“sermon on the mount” (which immediately follow his words in
Matt. 5:17-18) will remain applicable to Israel:
“Whosoever, then,
should be annulling one of the least of these precepts, and should be teaching
men thus, the least in the kingdom of the heavens shall he be called. Yet
whoever should be doing and teaching them, he shall be called great in the
kingdom of the heavens. For I am saying to you that, if ever your righteousness
should not be super-abounding more than that of the scribes and Pharisees, by
no means may you be entering into the kingdom of the heavens.”
[For a fuller
defense of this view, see part three of my study, “God’s Covenant People” (http://thathappyexpectation.blogspot.com/2018/09/gods-covenant-people-why-most-believing_83.html).]
Concerning the ending of the old
covenant, I was once assured by another believer that the author of the letter
to the Hebrews “emphatically declared that the old covenant had been done away
with.” However, we actually read no such thing in this letter (despite the fact
that the author very easily could have said this, had he
believed it to have been the case). Rather than saying that the old covenant
had been “done away with,” the author of Hebrews instead wrote the following
concerning it:
“In saying ‘new,’ [God] has made the
former old. Now, that which is growing old and decrepit is
near its disappearance.” (Hebrews 8:13)
To say that something is “growing old and decrepit” and
is “near its disappearance” is not the same as
saying that it has, in fact, ended or disappeared. And since that
which the author wrote was true at the time when he wrote his letter (which
was likely more than 30 years after the death and resurrection
of Christ), it would mean that Christ’s death and resurrection did not end the
old covenant.
The “nearness” of
the disappearance of the old covenant (and the implementation of the new
covenant) is inseparably connected to the return of Christ. In Hebrews 1:2 the
author referred to the era in which he wrote as “the last of these days” (cf.
Acts 2:16-18; 1 Pet. 1:20), and in Heb. 10:25 he referred to the future day of
the Lord as “drawing near” (cf. verses 26-31). James wrote that the “presence
of the Lord is near” and “the Judge stands before the doors.” Peter wrote in
his first letter, “Now the consummation of all is near.” Insofar as the
nearness of Christ’s return was true when the author of Hebrews wrote, the
disappearance of the old covenant could be said to have been “near” as well,
since it is at the consummation referred to by Peter (when the “Chief Shepherd
is manifested”) that the old covenant will disappear, and the new covenant will
go into effect (and which will involve Israel, as a nation, being
supernaturally empowered by God to successfully keep the law).
As far as the events
surrounding the siege of Jerusalem by the Romans in 70 AD, this was not the
first time that Jerusalem fell to a foreign power and the temple was destroyed
(nor was it the first time that the Jewish people were exiled from their land).
The same thing happened in 587 BC under King Nebuchadnezzar. And we know
that this judgment didn’t involve the end of the Mosaic Law or
the old covenant. On the contrary, that which took place at this time was in
accord with the old covenant (which threatened Israel with curses for
disobedience; see, for example, Lev. 26:14-39 and Deut. 28:15-68). And in
accord with God’s promise of national restoration and healing, the Jewish
temple was eventually rebuilt. In light of these considerations, we can
conclude that the events of both 587 BC and 70 AD are proof
that God’s covenant with Israel was still in effect at these respective times
in the nation’s history, and in no way suggest that the Mosaic Law (or even the
old covenant) ended when the temple was destroyed.
Another objection is based on the following words of Stephen
in Acts 7:46-50:
“And he
requests that he may find a tabernacle for the God of Jacob. Yet Solomon builds
Him a house. But the Most High is not dwelling in what is made by hands,
according as the prophet is saying, “‘Heaven is My throne, yet the earth is a
footstool for My feet. What kind of house shall be built for Me?’ the Lord is
saying, or what is the place of My stopping?” Is it not My hand that does all
these things?'”
The problem with this objection is
that God’s “not dwelling in what is made by hands” is something that
was just as true (and just as understood to be
true) in Solomon’s day as it was when Stephen spoke before
the Sanhedrin. Stephen wasn’t giving Israel any “new revelation” here.
For anyone to believe that God did dwell in what is made by
hands would be to believe something that was not even true in Solomon’s day,
when the first Jewish temple was built! Although Solomon
declared that he had “built…a
House, a residence for [God]” and “a site for [God] to dwell in for the eons” (1 Kings 8:13), even Solomon knew and openly
acknowledged that the newly-constructed temple was not something that could
possibly contain the transcendent Creator of heaven and earth, or keep him
bound to a single location on earth as a dwelling place (see 1 Kings 8:27; 2
Chron. 2:6).
Nevertheless – and this is the point
that needs to be emphasized here – the temple in Jerusalem could still, in all
truthfulness and legitimacy, be referred to as the “temple of God” or the
“temple of Yahweh” (1 Kings 8:10-11, etc.). Why? It wasn’t because God was literally contained within its walls (for
again, not even Solomon believed that). We’re told that God
promised David that his son would “build
a House for My Name” (2 Sam. 7:13; 1 Kings 5:5). God
himself declared in 2 Chron. 7:16, “Now
I have chosen and sanctified this House for My Name to be there unto the eon.
My eyes and My heart will be there all the days.” God also told Solomon that he had chosen the temple to
be “a house of sacrifice” (2 Chron. 7:12). And this wasn’t just true of
Solomon’s temple; the second Jewish temple (commonly referred
to as “Herod’s temple”) was just as much the temple of God or “temple of the
Lord” as the first (Luke 1:9).
Christ himself even referred to the
second temple as “my
Father’s house” (John 2:16; cf. Luke 2:49), and
both his words and his actions made it clear that he understood the temple to
be a holy and sacred place (Matt. 23:16-17; Mark 11:15-17; cf. Isaiah 56:7,
which Christ quoted when he “cleansed the temple”). Obviously, Christ would’ve agreed with
Stephen in Acts 7:46-50 (and with Paul in Acts 17:24) that “the Most High is not dwelling in what is made by hands.” And yet,
Christ still considered the temple to be his “Father’s house”
(and, it should be noted, the temple that Christ referred to as his Father’s
house did not even contain the Ark of the Covenant)! Thus, unlike many
Christians today, Christ clearly believed that the Jewish temple – despite not
being a place in which God literally resided or dwelled – was, nonetheless, a
place with which his Father’s honor was greatly connected. The problem in
Christ’s day was not with the temple itself (which, again, is something that
God himself said would be for his “Name”), but rather with the hearts of those
who worshiped and offered sacrifices there.
Christ’s priestly
ministry
The book of Hebrews is often appealed to by Christians in
support of their belief that the Levitical priesthood has been abolished and
invalidated, and that Israel’s sacrificial system will thus never be
reinstituted (at least, not with God’s approval). One of the main passages on
which this widely-held view is based is Hebrews 7:11-19. In Young’s Literal Translation, this
passage reads as follows:
If indeed, then, perfection were through the Levitical
priesthood -- for the people under it had received law -- what further need,
according to the order of Melchizedek, for another priest to arise, and not to
be called according to the order of Aaron? for the
priesthood being changed, of necessity also, of the law a change doth come, for
he of whom these things are said in another tribe hath had part, of whom no one
gave attendance at the altar, for [it is] evident
that out of Judah hath arisen our Lord, in regard to which tribe Moses spake
nothing concerning priesthood. And it is yet more
abundantly most evident, if according to the similitude of Melchizedek there
doth arise another priest, who came not according to
the law of a fleshly command, but according to the power of an endless life, for
He doth testify -- `Thou [art] a priest -- to the age, according to the order
of Melchizedek;' for a disannulling indeed doth come
of the command going before because of its weakness, and unprofitableness, (for
nothing did the law perfect) and the bringing in of a better hope, through
which we draw nigh to God.
Because we’re told perfection is
not “through the Levitical priesthood,” it’s assumed that the Levitical
priesthood must have been abolished (or that it lost its validity/divine
approval) when Christ became Chief Priest “according to the order of
Melchizedek.” However, a fact of which many who hold to this view seem unaware
(or which is simply overlooked) is that the
Levitical priesthood was never meant to
bring about the “perfection” referred to in this passage. This was never
the intended, God-given purpose and design of the Levitical priesthood.
So the
fact that Christ’s superior Melchizedekian priesthood does bring about the perfection referred to in v. 11 does not
logically lead to the conclusion that the inferior Levitical priesthood was
abolished when Christ became Chief Priest (since, again, it was never the job
of the Levitical priests to bring about the perfection referred to). Since the
two priesthoods have two different purposes/functions, the superior
(Melchizedekian) priesthood in heaven need not be understood as replacing the
inferior (Levitical) priesthood on earth. They can – and, I believe, will – exist simultaneously, with each
of the priesthoods fulfilling its distinct purpose and role in the respective
realm to which each inherently belongs.
According
to Vine’s Greek New Testament Dictionary,
the word translated “priesthood” in the above passage (hierosune) “signifies the office,
quality, rank and ministry of ‘a priest’” (https://studybible.info/vines/Priesthood,%20Priest's%20Office; see also https://studybible.info/strongs/G2420). Similarly, the
Greek-English Keyword Concordance of the CLNT defines it as “that which was
associated with the priestly office.” Based on the context, I believe it can be
reasonably concluded that, in Heb. 7:12, 24, the author of Hebrews was
referring specifically to the office and ministry of chief priest. But
what does it mean for the priesthood to have been “changed” (v. 12)?
The word
translated “changed” in this passage is metatithemenēs.
According to the Greek-English Keyword Concordance in the Concordant Literal
New Testament, the elements of this word are “after-PLACE.” In the CLNT, this
term is translated “transferred” in Heb. 7:12 (however, it should be
noted that the same term is translated “bartering” in Jude 4). The term “transferred”
seems to communicate the idea that the Levitical priesthood – which is in view in v. 12
– was transferred from one location
(or person/people) to another. However, we know that’s not the case. And this
fact alone suggests to me that metatithemenēs
does not mean “transferred” in Heb. 7:12.
Does this mean that “changed” should
be seen as the better translation here? Perhaps. However, there’s another
possibility. In contrast with both the CLNT and Young’s translation, the term metatithemenēs is translated
“displaced” in the Dabhar translation: “For due to the
priestdom being displaced, of necessity there becomes a displacement of law
also.” I believe this translation gets us closer to the actual meaning
of the term (at least, as it’s used in Hebrews 7:12) than either “changed” or
“transferred.” If the term does mean
“displaced” in this verse, then the idea being communicated is that the Levitical office and ministry of
chief priest on earth was, following Christ’s ascension to heaven, displaced by
Christ’s Melchizedekian priesthood.
We
know that, even before Christ was made a priest “according to the order of Melchizedek,” the chief priest
Caiaphas disqualified himself as chief priest by his own law-breaking actions
(see Matthew 26:65 and compare with Leviticus 10:6; 21:10). However, it was not
until after Christ ascended to heaven that the Levitical office of chief priest
was displaced by Christ’s Melchizedekian priesthood. The reason for this is provided in the next chapter of
Hebrews.
In Heb. 8:4-5, the author made it clear that, if Christ were on earth
at the time the letter was written, he would not even be a priest (since there
was, at the time the letter was written, a Levitical priesthood on the earth
operating in accord with the law). And based on what we find revealed in
prophecy (see, for example, Jer. 33:20-22, Zech. 14:20-21 and all the reference
to the priests in Ezekiel 40-48), it’s clear that the Levitical priesthood
will, in fact, be present and operative on the earth during the next eon, after
the kingdom has been restored to Israel (however, it should be
noted that, according to Ezek. 43:19 and 44:15, only those who are of the
family of Zadok will have the privilege of offering sacrifices and ministering
in the future sanctuary).
So
it’s reasonable to conclude that the chief priestly office on earth was
displaced by Christ’s priesthood after he ascended to heaven. Moreover, since
Christ is not of the tribe of Levi (he’s of Judah), the displacement of the
chief priestly office on earth necessarily involved a displacement of the law
concerning who can (and who can’t) be a chief priest. In v. 17 we read that the
basis of Christ’s priesthood is “not according to the law of a fleshly
command, but according to the power of an endless life.” And a few verses
later we read the following:
“And, in as much as it
was not apart from the swearing of an oath (for these, indeed, are priests,
having become so apart from the swearing of an oath, yet that One with the
swearing of an oath by Him Who is saying to Him, “The Lord swears and will not
be regretting it, ‘Thou art a priest for the eon according to the order of
Melchizedek.’”) (Heb. 7:20-21)
In
other words, the law concerning who can become a chief priest was, in the case
of Christ, displaced by God’s oath. In accord with this understanding of the displacement of the law
referred to in Heb. 7:12, the “repudiation of the preceding precept” (v. 18)
refers to the repudiation of the “fleshly precept” referred to in v. 16. This
precept concerns the requirement that a chief priest be from the family of
Aaron (it’s called “fleshly” because it involves the fleshly lineage of
priests). In Exodus 29:9 we read that “the priesthood shall be theirs [i.e.,
Aaron and his sons] for a perpetual statute.” This precept concerning the
Aaronic priesthood requirement is said to be “weak and without benefit” insofar as it appointed men chief priests “who have infirmity” (v.
28), and who, consequently, couldn’t adequately deal with sin and bring Israel
to perfection (and, it should be emphasized, this was never the job of the
Levitical priesthood in the first place).
In contrast with
this “fleshly precept” concerning who can (and can’t) become chief priest, we
read that the “word sworn in the oath
which is after the law appoints the Son, perfected, for the eon” (v. 28; cf. vv 20-21). Thus, the
repudiation of this precept should not be understood as involving the abolishing/annulling
of the entire Levitical/Aaronic priesthood (for, again, it’s prophesied that
this priesthood – as well as its associated sacrificial system – will be
present and active on the earth during the next eon). Rather, the “fleshly precept” being “repudiated” simply means
that this precept was rejected by
God as having any binding force on Christ (who became Chief Priest in
accord with God’s oath, in conjunction with “the power of an endless
life” that Christ received when he was raised from the dead by God). That
is, the precept concerning qualifications for
becoming chief priest was repudiated only in regard to
Jesus’ present, heavenly priesthood. This
precept simply does not apply to (or have any authority over) Christ in his
present, heavenly location.
In summary, the Levitical office of chief priest was displaced
by Christ’s office as Chief Priest, and the associated law/precept concerning
qualifications for becoming chief priest was, in the case of Christ, displaced
by God’s oath. However, although Christ’s heavenly, Melchizedekian priesthood is superior
to the earthly, Levitical priesthood, the Levitical priesthood was not
invalidated or abolished when Christ became Chief Priest. Based on what we read in Ezekiel 40-48 and elsewhere
(e.g., Jer. 33:20-22 and Zech. 14:20-21), it’s clear that the Levitical
priesthood will be present and operative on the earth during the next eon.
A
response to Stephen Jones
Recently, a fellow believer posted some excerpts from a book by Stephen
Jones (an “anti-dispensationalist” Christian teacher who denies that God's covenant people, Israel, have any future expectation that is distinct from that which belongs to believers in the body of Christ). In the excerpts shared by the believer, the author attempts to defend the view that none of the
prophecies from the Hebrew Scriptures that reveal a future millennial temple
and reinstituted sacrificial system during the eon to come are actually going
to be fulfilled. The remainder of this article will therefore consist of a response to each of the claims and objections made by Stephen Jones that were shared by the
believer.
Stephen Jones: “The modern teaching in
Dispensationalism that animal sacrifice will be reinstituted is based upon Old
Testament prophetic statements such as Ezekiel 44, which prophesies in Old
Testament terms, but which must be interpreted in the light of the New
Testament.”
I’m not sure what, exactly, Stephen Jones means by “…based upon
Old Testament prophetic statements such as Ezekiel 44, which prophesies in Old
Testament terms.” I find this to be unhelpful, ambiguous language. What,
exactly, are “Old Testament terms?” I doubt that, by these words, Stephen Jones
is simply referring to terms that are found in the Hebrew Scriptures (or “Old
Testament”), for that would be a stupid thing to say. Obviously, Ezekiel’s
prophetic statements are part of the Hebrew Scriptures, and were recorded using
the Hebrew language. Perhaps, then, Jones means something like, “terms that
pertain to the Old Covenant.” But this understanding of Stephen’s words would
imply that Ezekiel 36-48 concerns the Old Covenant. However, the prophecies
found in Ezekiel 36-48 are all about Israel’s future destiny under the New
Covenant. In other words, Ezekiel was, in these last twelve chapters of his
book, prophesying concerning conditions
that will not be present on the earth until after
the New Covenant has gone into effect!
Thus, it’s absurd to say that
Ezekiel’s prophecy in chapters 36-48 reveals a future destiny for Israel in
“Old Covenant” terms (and if Stephen Jones believes that what is revealed in
these chapters reflects an “Old Covenant” relationship between God and Israel,
then this simply means that he doesn’t understand what the New Covenant is or
involves).
Stephen Jones: “The Temple that God is
now constructing is of the New Jerusalem, as described in Ephesians 2:20-22.”
I disagree that the figurative temple to which Paul referred in
Eph. 2:20-22 is “of the New Jerusalem.” But for the sake of argument, let’s
just assume that it is. We know that there’s not going to be a literal temple
in the New Jerusalem, so this state of affairs would be consistent with Paul’s
reference to the figurative “temple” of Eph. 2:20-22. But would this mean that
we should understand the millennial temple described in the final chapters of
Ezekiel as a description of the figurative temple referred to in Ephesians
2:20-22? Not at all.
Paul’s reference to a figurative temple in Eph. 2:20-22 in
no way justifies the interpretive decision of those who, because of their own
doctrinal bias and assumptions, see Ezekiel’s prophecy of the millennial temple
as an elaborate allegory that will never literally be fulfilled (despite the
fact that, unlike Paul’s words in Eph. 2:20-22, there is no indication that the
temple prophesied by Ezekiel is anything other than a literal temple). Everything
of which Ezekiel prophesied can be understood in a normal, straight-forward way
without contradicting anything Paul wrote in Eph. 2:20-22.
Stephen Jones: “This is the Temple
from which Jesus Christ will rule in the Tabernacles Age to come. He does not
intend to rule the earth from an old-style temple in the old Jerusalem, nor
will He call Aaronic priests to minister with animal sacrifices upon an altar
on the Temple Mount.”
Actually, we’re not told in Ezekiel or the other prophets that
the millennial temple will be located “in the old Jerusalem,” or that it will
be located on the present-day “Temple Mount.” In fact, we know that major topographical
changes are going to be occurring in the land of Israel at the time of Christ’s
return to the earth (Zech. 14:3-5). These changes will result in a
much-larger/expanded Jerusalem that will be elevated above the rest of the
surrounding land (which, in Zech. 14:10, we’re told will be turned into a
plain). At this time, Mount Zion (which will be the sight of the future temple
in Jerusalem) will be the most elevated location in the land of Israel:
“The word that Isaiah the son of Amoz saw concerning Judah and
Jerusalem. It shall come to pass in the latter days that the
mountain of the house of Yahweh shall be established as the highest of the
mountains, and shall be lifted up above the hills; and all the nations
shall flow to it, and many peoples shall come, and say: ‘Come, let us go up
to the mountain of Yahweh, to the house of the God of Jacob, that
he may teach us his ways and that we may walk in his paths.’ For out of Zion shall go forth the
law, and the word of Yahweh from Jerusalem.” Isaiah 2:1-3
Stephen Jones is, of course, free to dismiss this and all of the
other related prophecies concerning Israel’s eonian destiny (e.g., by
allegorizing them away or making them conditional in nature), but he is simply
mistaken if he believes that his interpretation is somehow more consistent with
the rest of Scripture than the understanding of those with whom he disagrees.
There is absolutely no contradiction between what the Hebrew prophets wrote
concerning Israel’s covenant-based expectation during the eon to come (and
which will be in accord with the New Covenant) and what we read anywhere in the
Greek Scriptures (including the book of Hebrews).
Contrary to the belief of Stephen Jones (which, I should add,
reflects the belief of most Christians), the law-keeping and temple-based
worship system that prophecy reveals will characterize the national life of
God’s covenant people during the eon to come will not be a “step backwards” for
them, or (as one believer put it) a “change back” to an Old Covenant-based
relationship with God. Life under the New Covenant will be a huge step forward
for Israel. When the New Covenant goes into effect, Israel will be empowered to
walk in God's statutes and obey his rules for them (Ezek. 36:26-27). This, of
course, is one of the main purposes of the New Covenant: empowering Israel to
do what they were unable to do under the Old Covenant. Thus, although Israel’s
relationship with God in the millennial kingdom will involve a degree of
continuity with their relationship with God when they were under the Old Covenant,
the differences will be far greater and more profound.
Stephen Jones: “Modern
Dispensationalism has brought us once again to the same problem that Paul faced
in the first century. The attempt is being made to turn the Church back to the
Old Covenant, which would empower Levites to re-institute animal sacrifices in
a physical temple in Jerusalem. Like the Jerusalem Church, the Christians are
trying to add Jesus to the Old Covenant and its old priestly system.”
I’m not sure who, exactly, Stephen Jones had in mind when he
asserted that “modern Dispensationalism” is attempting “to turn the Church back
to the Old Covenant.” However, insofar as my own “dispensational” position is
concerned, Stephen’s assertion is a complete straw-man and misrepresentation of
what I believe. No one who correctly
distinguishes the body of Christ from that company of saints referred to by
Paul as “the Israel of God” (i.e., believers from among God’s covenant people)
could, with any consistency, believe that the body of Christ should “turn back
to the Old Covenant!” Such a position as this would be completely absurd.
Moreover,
even if “the Church” to which Stephen Jones was referring is understood as that
which is comprised of believers among God’s covenant people (which is the
“church” to which Christ was referring in Matthew 16:18), it still wouldn’t be
true to say that, after Christ returns, these believers will be turning “back
to the Old Covenant!” Ezekiel 36-48 is not
about the Old Covenant, or Israel’s future under the Old Covenant. It’s all
about the New Covenant. If this fact is problematic for Stephen Jones’
understanding of the New Covenant (and it is), then it simply means that
Stephen’s understanding of the New Covenant (and Israel’s covenant-based
expectation) is seriously flawed.
In fact, not only is it not the case that the body of Christ should “turn back to the Old Covenant” (which would be impossible, given the fact that most members of the body of Christ were never under the Old Covenant), but we don’t even have anything directly to do with the New Covenant! Although
Israel’s life under the New Covenant won’t
be a “step backwards” for them, their covenant-based expectation would be a “step backwards” for Jewish
believers in the body of Christ (such as Paul). The reason for this is as
follows: Israelites who have been chosen
beforehand by God for membership in the body of Christ – and who are
subsequently called by God through the “evangel of the Uncircumcision” – cease
to be in a covenant-based relationship with God (and thus cease to be members
of God's covenant people, Israel) when they become members of the body of
Christ.
Paul referred to the status of those who were in a
covenant-based relationship with God (and who thus had a covenant-based
obligation to keep the law given by God to Israel) as being “under law” or “in
law” (Rom. 2:12; 6:14-15; 1 Cor. 9:20-21; Gal. 4:4-5, 21). Conversely,
those who Paul referred to as being “without law” are simply those who aren’t members of God’s covenant people,
Israel, and who thus don’t have a
covenant-based obligation to keep the law of God given to Israel.
Now,
according to Paul, those in the body of Christ – whether they’re of a Jewish or
Gentile background – are not under law (Romans 6:14-15). Despite
the fact that “the law is holy” and “the precept holy and just and good”
(7:12), those in the body of Christ have been exempted from the law (7:1-6). In
fact, Paul clearly believed that those in the body of Christ who wanted to be
circumcised and “be under law” were greatly mistaken, for this was not in
accord with their calling and status as members of the body of Christ (Gal.
3:23-29; 5:1-10). Thus, we can conclude that Paul did not have (nor did he
consider himself as having) a covenant-based obligation to keep the law given
to Israel. And, consequently, Paul couldn’t have considered himself as having
been a member of God’s covenant people, Israel, during his apostolic ministry.
In contrast with Paul’s status and relationship to the law as a
member of the body of Christ, it’s evident that the “tens of thousands” of
believing, law-keeping Jews referred to by James in Acts 21:20 understood
themselves as having a covenant-based obligation to keep the law. Consider,
then, the following argument:
1. The “tens of thousands” of believing Jews referred to in Acts
21:20 were a continuation of the “little flock” referred to by Christ in Luke
12:32, and were part of the believing remnant among God’s covenant nation,
Israel.
2. As members of God’s covenant nation, Israel, these
believing Jews had a covenant-based obligation to keep the law of Moses (they
were, in other words, “under law”).
3. The body of Christ – being a company of saints that is
distinct from God’s covenant people, Israel – does not have a covenant-based
obligation to keep the law of Moses (we are exempt from the law).
4. The “tens of thousands” of believing Jews referred to in Acts
21:20 were not members of the body of Christ, and Paul was not a member of the
company of saints to which these believing Jews belonged.
In the body of Christ, neither circumcision nor uncircumcision
counts for anything. But for the Israel of God, circumcision remains essential
to their identity as members of God's covenant people, and it will still be of
importance even in the millennial kingdom (Ezek. 44:9).
Stephen Jones: “Such a view may admit
that Jesus is the Mediator of the New Covenant in His first coming, but it
strongly suggests also that Jesus becomes the Mediator of the Old Covenant in
His second coming.”
Stephen Jones’ belief that a literal fulfillment of Ezekiel
36-48 would somehow make Jesus “the Mediator of the Old Covenant in His second
coming” simply betrays Stephen’s own misunderstanding of what Israel’s
relationship with God under the New Covenant will involve. Again, Ezekiel 36-48
is all about Israel’s eonian destiny under the New Covenant (which Christ, upon
his return to earth to restore the kingdom to Israel, is going to put into
effect). To imply that Jesus would “become the Mediator of the Old Covenant” by
fulfilling God’s promises to Israel and bringing about everything prophesied in
Ezekiel 36-48 is simply ridiculous. Stephen Jones is reading his own
unscriptural beliefs about the New Covenant (and what it will involve for
Israel in the eon to come) “in between the lines” of the book of Hebrews.
Nothing written in the book of Hebrews contradicts a literal fulfillment of any
prophecy concerning Israel’s expectation in the eon to come.
Stephen Jones: “There is hardly a
doctrine that is more detrimental to the foundations of Christianity than this.
It overthrows virtually all that Jesus accomplished on the Cross. It reverses
virtually every major change that took place under the New Covenant that is
described in the book of Hebrew. If this teaching were allowed to stand, the
book of Hebrews would eventually be removed from the New Testament.”
There is nothing prophesied in Ezekiel 36-48 that “overthrows” anything
Jesus accomplished on the cross, or that “reverses every major change that took
place under the New Covenant that is described in the book of Hebrews.” The
real contradiction is actually between what God has revealed concerning
Israel’s eonian destiny under the New Covenant and Stephen Jones’ own erroneous
views of the New Covenant and what Jesus accomplished on the cross.